Verbal Reasoning Practice Subtest Instructions

In this section of the exam, you will be presented with 11 passages to read, each associated with 4 questions.

Some questions assess critical reasoning skills, requiring candidates to make inferences and draw conclusions from information. You will need to read the passage of text carefully. You will then be presented with a question or incomplete statement and four response options. You are required to pick the best or most suitable response.

For other questions your task is to read each passage of text carefully and then decide whether the statement provided follows logically.

There are three answer options you can choose from:

True: On the basis of the information in the passage, the statement is true.

False: On the basis of the information in the passage, the statement is false.

Can’t Tell: You cannot tell from the information in the passage whether the statement is true or false.

Candidates will only be able to select one response.

It is in your best interest to answer all questions as there is no penalty for guessing. All unanswered questions will be scored as incorrect.

Click the Next (N) button to proceed.

Khmer Rouge

Tuol Svay Pray High School sits on a dusty road on the outskirts of Phnom Penh, Cambodia. In 1976, the Khmer Rouge (a far left Cambodian political party) renamed the high school S-21 and turned it into a torture, interrogation and execution center. Of the 14,000 people known to have entered, only seven survived.

Not only did the Khmer Rouge carefully transcribe the prisoners’ interrogations; they also carefully photographed the vast majority of the inmates and created an astonishing photographic archive. Each of the almost 6,000 S-21 portraits that have been recovered tells a story shock, resignation, confusion, defiance and horror.

Although the most gruesome images to come out of Cambodia were those of the on-site mass graves, the most haunting were the portraits taken by the Khmer Rouge at S-21. Today, S-21 is known as the Tuol Sleng Museum of Genocide. Inside the gates, it looks like any high school; five buildings face a grass courtyard with pull-up bars, green lawns and lawn-bowling pitches. The ground-floor classrooms in one building have been left to appear as they were in 1977. The spartan interrogation rooms are furnished with only a school desk-and-chair set that faces a steel bed frame with shackles at each end. On the far wall are the grisly photographs of bloated, decomposing bodies chained to bed frames with pools of wet blood underneath.

These were the sights that greeted the two Vietnamese photojournalists who first discovered S-21 in January of 1979. In another building the walls are papered with thousands of S-21 portraits. At first glance, the photograph of a shirtless young man appears typical of the prison photos. Closer inspection reveals that the number tag on his chest has been safety pinned to his pectoral muscle.

With a bruised face and a pad-locked chain around his neck, a boy stands with his arms at his sides and looks straight into the camera.A mother with her baby in her arms stares into the camera with a look of indignant resignation. The photographs and confessions were collected in order to prove to the Khmer Rouge leaders that their orders had been carried out.

1. A man in one of the S-21 portraits had a 5 digit number tag attached to his chest.
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    Explanation

    Can’t Tell. Looking for the keyword ‘number tag’, we find it in the last paragraph where it says that the man had a ‘number tag’ on his pectoral muscle. However, we do not know how many digits it is, so the answer is Can’t Tell.

    Post Comment

    Khmer Rouge

    Tuol Svay Pray High School sits on a dusty road on the outskirts of Phnom Penh, Cambodia. In 1976, the Khmer Rouge (a far left Cambodian political party) renamed the high school S-21 and turned it into a torture, interrogation and execution center. Of the 14,000 people known to have entered, only seven survived.

    Not only did the Khmer Rouge carefully transcribe the prisoners’ interrogations; they also carefully photographed the vast majority of the inmates and created an astonishing photographic archive. Each of the almost 6,000 S-21 portraits that have been recovered tells a story shock, resignation, confusion, defiance and horror.

    Although the most gruesome images to come out of Cambodia were those of the on-site mass graves, the most haunting were the portraits taken by the Khmer Rouge at S-21. Today, S-21 is known as the Tuol Sleng Museum of Genocide. Inside the gates, it looks like any high school; five buildings face a grass courtyard with pull-up bars, green lawns and lawn-bowling pitches. The ground-floor classrooms in one building have been left to appear as they were in 1977. The spartan interrogation rooms are furnished with only a school desk-and-chair set that faces a steel bed frame with shackles at each end. On the far wall are the grisly photographs of bloated, decomposing bodies chained to bed frames with pools of wet blood underneath.

    These were the sights that greeted the two Vietnamese photojournalists who first discovered S-21 in January of 1979. In another building the walls are papered with thousands of S-21 portraits. At first glance, the photograph of a shirtless young man appears typical of the prison photos. Closer inspection reveals that the number tag on his chest has been safety pinned to his pectoral muscle.

    With a bruised face and a pad-locked chain around his neck, a boy stands with his arms at his sides and looks straight into the camera.A mother with her baby in her arms stares into the camera with a look of indignant resignation. The photographs and confessions were collected in order to prove to the Khmer Rouge leaders that their orders had been carried out.

    2. S-21 is still a high school.
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    Explanation

    False. We use the keywords ’high school’ and would find two references. Whilst we are told in the first paragraph a high school was renamed S-21, it is clear it underwent a change away from being used as a school. The second reference is at the beginning of the second paragraph, saying that ‘it looks like any high school’, but we cannot infer it was ever a high school and S-21 at the same time.

    Post Comment
    Alex Medicmind Tutor

    Tue, 29 Sep 2020 13:55:37

    Nowhere in the text does it say/can be inferred that there is not a high school in the world called S-21. I believe a more fitting answer would be Cant tell

    Maryam Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 18 Feb 2021 21:30:11

    But it states in the first paragraphs that it was turned into torture, an interrogation center

    Khmer Rouge

    Tuol Svay Pray High School sits on a dusty road on the outskirts of Phnom Penh, Cambodia. In 1976, the Khmer Rouge (a far left Cambodian political party) renamed the high school S-21 and turned it into a torture, interrogation and execution center. Of the 14,000 people known to have entered, only seven survived.

    Not only did the Khmer Rouge carefully transcribe the prisoners’ interrogations; they also carefully photographed the vast majority of the inmates and created an astonishing photographic archive. Each of the almost 6,000 S-21 portraits that have been recovered tells a story shock, resignation, confusion, defiance and horror.

    Although the most gruesome images to come out of Cambodia were those of the on-site mass graves, the most haunting were the portraits taken by the Khmer Rouge at S-21. Today, S-21 is known as the Tuol Sleng Museum of Genocide. Inside the gates, it looks like any high school; five buildings face a grass courtyard with pull-up bars, green lawns and lawn-bowling pitches. The ground-floor classrooms in one building have been left to appear as they were in 1977. The spartan interrogation rooms are furnished with only a school desk-and-chair set that faces a steel bed frame with shackles at each end. On the far wall are the grisly photographs of bloated, decomposing bodies chained to bed frames with pools of wet blood underneath.

    These were the sights that greeted the two Vietnamese photojournalists who first discovered S-21 in January of 1979. In another building the walls are papered with thousands of S-21 portraits. At first glance, the photograph of a shirtless young man appears typical of the prison photos. Closer inspection reveals that the number tag on his chest has been safety pinned to his pectoral muscle.

    With a bruised face and a pad-locked chain around his neck, a boy stands with his arms at his sides and looks straight into the camera.A mother with her baby in her arms stares into the camera with a look of indignant resignation. The photographs and confessions were collected in order to prove to the Khmer Rouge leaders that their orders had been carried out.

    3. The Khmer Rouge contains mass graves.
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    Explanation

    False. A good keyword here is ‘mass graves’. Using the keyword ‘Khmer Rouge’ will not help us too much as it doesn’t narrow down the passage for us much as the words are present throughout the passage. We are told that ‘the most gruesome images to come out of Cambodia were those of the on-site mass graves’. However, the key to answering this question is understanding that Khmer Rouge was a political party, as we are told in the first few lines. The mass graves were on site of S-21, not Khmer Rouge – a political party is not a location which can contain mass graves, so the answer is false.

    Post Comment

    Khmer Rouge

    Tuol Svay Pray High School sits on a dusty road on the outskirts of Phnom Penh, Cambodia. In 1976, the Khmer Rouge (a far left Cambodian political party) renamed the high school S-21 and turned it into a torture, interrogation and execution center. Of the 14,000 people known to have entered, only seven survived.

    Not only did the Khmer Rouge carefully transcribe the prisoners’ interrogations; they also carefully photographed the vast majority of the inmates and created an astonishing photographic archive. Each of the almost 6,000 S-21 portraits that have been recovered tells a story shock, resignation, confusion, defiance and horror.

    Although the most gruesome images to come out of Cambodia were those of the on-site mass graves, the most haunting were the portraits taken by the Khmer Rouge at S-21. Today, S-21 is known as the Tuol Sleng Museum of Genocide. Inside the gates, it looks like any high school; five buildings face a grass courtyard with pull-up bars, green lawns and lawn-bowling pitches. The ground-floor classrooms in one building have been left to appear as they were in 1977. The spartan interrogation rooms are furnished with only a school desk-and-chair set that faces a steel bed frame with shackles at each end. On the far wall are the grisly photographs of bloated, decomposing bodies chained to bed frames with pools of wet blood underneath.

    These were the sights that greeted the two Vietnamese photojournalists who first discovered S-21 in January of 1979. In another building the walls are papered with thousands of S-21 portraits. At first glance, the photograph of a shirtless young man appears typical of the prison photos. Closer inspection reveals that the number tag on his chest has been safety pinned to his pectoral muscle.

    With a bruised face and a pad-locked chain around his neck, a boy stands with his arms at his sides and looks straight into the camera.A mother with her baby in her arms stares into the camera with a look of indignant resignation. The photographs and confessions were collected in order to prove to the Khmer Rouge leaders that their orders had been carried out.

    4. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
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    Explanation

    In this type 2 statement question, we must determine which statement to begin with. Statement D contains extreme language, whilst statement A seems implausible as we know it is an ‘execution center’. Statement B contains better keywords than statement C, so we would start there.

    A – Looking for the keyword of ‘survivors’, and finding it in the first paragraph, we know that there were only 7 survivors.

    B – Using the keyword ‘1979’ guides us to the last line of the second paragraph, where it tells us that S-21 was discovered in January 1979, not the last month (December).

    C – The Khmer Rouge renamed the school and turned it into a base for torture and interrogation. They appear to have taken residence and are intrinsically linked to S-21. Therefore, this is a reasonable inference to make.

    D – Looking for the keyword of ‘furniture’ or any items of furniture – we know that the spartan interrogation rooms are furnished with only a school desk-and-chair set.

    Post Comment

    A Paradise to Lose

    The Amazon region is home to more than one million species of animals and plants – some 60 % of the planet’s species. The rainforest is therefore an irreplaceable archive of biodiversity. But it also performs valuable services for plants and the soil, by binding considerable amounts of carbon dioxide, for instance.

    Nonetheless, the latest satellite images show that the rainforest’s inhabitants are under threat. Clear-cutting continues, for example to make space for cattle ranches and soybean plantations. Climate change, moreover, is also beginning to threaten the wilderness.

    In the past 40 years, a rainforest area twice the sizes of France was destroyed in the Amazon basin. Most of this devastation occurred in Brazil, which is home to more than half of the rainforest. Destructive practices continue even today, although the government of Brazil, with international support, is doing quite a bit to put an end to them. However, global demand for agrofuels is increasing, and Brazil’s model of economic development is based on commodity exports. Both the national government and most state governments focus on mass exports of raw agricultural products, such as meat, soybeans and sugarcane.

    Borges Maggi is the world’s most important soybean producer and the governor of the Brazilian state of Mato Grosso. He says that forest romanticism has no future. He and other agro-millionaires speak of defending the “constitutional right to deforestation” for the sake of Brazil’s development.

    But Marina Silva, Brazil’s environment minister and a former rubber-plantation worker, disagrees. She supports a different development model. As she puts it, if trends are not sustainable, they are not about development, but only about repeating catastrophes.

    5. Which of the following conclusions is most likely to be true?
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    Explanation

    This type 2 statement question is handled by determining which statement to start with. Statement A and C are extreme, and therefore less likely to be true. Statement B has better keywords, so its best to start here.

    A – ‘Livestock’ or similar would be a suitable keyword, and we can find ‘cattle’ in the second paragraph. We are told that deforestation occurs to make space for both soybean production and cattle ranches. There is nothing to say one is more prevalent than the other

    B – Looking for the keywords of ‘deforestation’ and ‘economical’ (or associated words), we can see the 4th paragraph states that there are agro-millionaires who appear to benefit from deforestation.

    C – Our keyword of ‘climate change’ comes up in the 2nd paragraph, and whilst we know that it is a threat, we have nothing to confirm that it is a bigger threat than deforestation.

    D – The entire passage debates the pros and cons of deforestation, and contains many conflicting views. We cannot safely assume anything about the overall benefit of deforestation based on this passage.

     

    Post Comment

    A Paradise to Lose

    The Amazon region is home to more than one million species of animals and plants – some 60 % of the planet’s species. The rainforest is therefore an irreplaceable archive of biodiversity. But it also performs valuable services for plants and the soil, by binding considerable amounts of carbon dioxide, for instance.

    Nonetheless, the latest satellite images show that the rainforest’s inhabitants are under threat. Clear-cutting continues, for example to make space for cattle ranches and soybean plantations. Climate change, moreover, is also beginning to threaten the wilderness.

    In the past 40 years, a rainforest area twice the sizes of France was destroyed in the Amazon basin. Most of this devastation occurred in Brazil, which is home to more than half of the rainforest. Destructive practices continue even today, although the government of Brazil, with international support, is doing quite a bit to put an end to them. However, global demand for agrofuels is increasing, and Brazil’s model of economic development is based on commodity exports. Both the national government and most state governments focus on mass exports of raw agricultural products, such as meat, soybeans and sugarcane.

    Borges Maggi is the world’s most important soybean producer and the governor of the Brazilian state of Mato Grosso. He says that forest romanticism has no future. He and other agro-millionaires speak of defending the “constitutional right to deforestation” for the sake of Brazil’s development.

    But Marina Silva, Brazil’s environment minister and a former rubber-plantation worker, disagrees. She supports a different development model. As she puts it, if trends are not sustainable, they are not about development, but only about repeating catastrophes.

    6. Deforestation has many impacts on a local and national scale. Deforestation should cease because:
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    Explanation

    These statements all come coupled with a reason, and therefore we must take extra care to look at both halves of the statement.

    A – We are not told anything about tourism in the passage at all. We can therefore rule this out immediately.

    B – We know that deforestation helps the economy therefore this is contradicting what is being said in the passage.

    C – This is true and is told in the passage, however it does not provide an explanation as to why deforestation should cease.

    D – We are told in the first paragraph that 60% of the planet’s species are contained there, which confirms the first half of the statement. The second paragraph confirms the second half of the statement – it is reasonable to infer that if the species are ‘under threat’ that this could lead to their extinction.

    Post Comment

    A Paradise to Lose

    The Amazon region is home to more than one million species of animals and plants – some 60 % of the planet’s species. The rainforest is therefore an irreplaceable archive of biodiversity. But it also performs valuable services for plants and the soil, by binding considerable amounts of carbon dioxide, for instance.

    Nonetheless, the latest satellite images show that the rainforest’s inhabitants are under threat. Clear-cutting continues, for example to make space for cattle ranches and soybean plantations. Climate change, moreover, is also beginning to threaten the wilderness.

    In the past 40 years, a rainforest area twice the sizes of France was destroyed in the Amazon basin. Most of this devastation occurred in Brazil, which is home to more than half of the rainforest. Destructive practices continue even today, although the government of Brazil, with international support, is doing quite a bit to put an end to them. However, global demand for agrofuels is increasing, and Brazil’s model of economic development is based on commodity exports. Both the national government and most state governments focus on mass exports of raw agricultural products, such as meat, soybeans and sugarcane.

    Borges Maggi is the world’s most important soybean producer and the governor of the Brazilian state of Mato Grosso. He says that forest romanticism has no future. He and other agro-millionaires speak of defending the “constitutional right to deforestation” for the sake of Brazil’s development.

    But Marina Silva, Brazil’s environment minister and a former rubber-plantation worker, disagrees. She supports a different development model. As she puts it, if trends are not sustainable, they are not about development, but only about repeating catastrophes.

    7. According to the passage, the governor of the Brazilian state said that deforestation should continue:
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    Explanation

    We can find the ‘governor of the Brazilian state’ in the 4th paragraph, as Borges Maggi. Reading this short paragraph allows us to appraise the statements.

    A – This is a counter-argument used to support why deforestation should occur.

    B – This is correct. We are told that there is a constitutional right to deforestation

    C – We know that he is a soybean producer, but he does not explicitly say this is the reason he wants deforestation to continue.

    D – He mentions the development of Brazil – this is not necessarily Brazil’s economy.

     

    Post Comment

    A Paradise to Lose

    The Amazon region is home to more than one million species of animals and plants – some 60 % of the planet’s species. The rainforest is therefore an irreplaceable archive of biodiversity. But it also performs valuable services for plants and the soil, by binding considerable amounts of carbon dioxide, for instance.

    Nonetheless, the latest satellite images show that the rainforest’s inhabitants are under threat. Clear-cutting continues, for example to make space for cattle ranches and soybean plantations. Climate change, moreover, is also beginning to threaten the wilderness.

    In the past 40 years, a rainforest area twice the sizes of France was destroyed in the Amazon basin. Most of this devastation occurred in Brazil, which is home to more than half of the rainforest. Destructive practices continue even today, although the government of Brazil, with international support, is doing quite a bit to put an end to them. However, global demand for agrofuels is increasing, and Brazil’s model of economic development is based on commodity exports. Both the national government and most state governments focus on mass exports of raw agricultural products, such as meat, soybeans and sugarcane.

    Borges Maggi is the world’s most important soybean producer and the governor of the Brazilian state of Mato Grosso. He says that forest romanticism has no future. He and other agro-millionaires speak of defending the “constitutional right to deforestation” for the sake of Brazil’s development.

    But Marina Silva, Brazil’s environment minister and a former rubber-plantation worker, disagrees. She supports a different development model. As she puts it, if trends are not sustainable, they are not about development, but only about repeating catastrophes.

    8. The following are all currently threats to the rainforest wildlife, except:
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    Explanation

    The key to this question is understanding that we are being asked which of the following is not a reason for deforestation, as deforestation is something that is leading to a loss of wildlife.

    A – ‘Agrofuels’ is mentioned in the 3rd paragraph, and we can infer that agrofuels is part of Brazil’s commodity exports, and therefore must be a reason for deforestation, which in turn leads to loss of wildlife.

    B – We are told that soybean plantation are two reasons why deforestation is occurring, which is a threat to the rainforest.

    C – ‘Rubber’ is only mentioned in the final paragraph, in the context of a former rubber plantation worker. This does not tell us that there is currently any deforestation due to rubber production. Therefore this is the correct answer.

    D – Whilst not directly related to deforestation, in the second paragraph, we are also told that ‘climate change is beginning to threaten the wilderness’.

     

    Post Comment
    Alex Medicmind Tutor

    Tue, 29 Sep 2020 13:58:15

    Saying that rubber production does not threat rainforest life is a stretch. Just because it doesn't specify that it contributes to deforestation does not mean it does not.

    Bread, Beer & Yeast

    The history of bread and cake starts with Neolithic cooks and marches through time according to ingredient availability, advances in technology, economic conditions, socio-cultural influences, legal rights (Medieval guilds), and evolving taste. The earliest breads were unleavened. Variations in grain, thickness, shape, and texture varied from culture to culture.

    Archaelogical evidence confirms yeast (both as leavening agent and for brewing ale) was used in Egypt as early as 4000 B.C. Food historians generally cite this date for the discovery of leavened food and genesis of the brewing industry. There is an alternate theory regarding the invention of brewing. Some historians believe it is possible that brewing began when the first cereal crops were domesticated.

    Sources generally agree the discovery of the powers of yeast was accidental. No one has yet managed to date the origins of beer with any precision, and it is probably an impossible task. Indeed, there are scholars who have theorized that a taste for ale prompted the beginning of agriculture, in which case humans have been brewing for some 10,000 years. Most archaeological evidence, however, suggests that fermentation was being used in one manner or another by around 4000 to 3500 B.C. Some of this evidence-from an ancient.

    Mesopotamian trading outpost called Godin Tepe in present-day Iran- indicates that barley was being fermented at that location around 3500 B.C. Additional evidence recovered at Hacinegi Tepe (a similar site in southern Turkey) also suggest that ancient Mesopotamians were fermenting barley at a very early date.

    9. Yeast was used in bakeries in 4004 B.C.
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    Explanation

    Can’t Tell. Looking for the keyword of ‘4000 B.C’, we can see in the second paragraph that it was used as a ‘leavening agent and in brewing ale’. Not only would it be using external knowledge to know that leavening agents are used in baking, but we are also not explicitly told that it was used in bakeries, or even if there were any bakeries during this time period.

    Post Comment

    Bread, Beer & Yeast

    The history of bread and cake starts with Neolithic cooks and marches through time according to ingredient availability, advances in technology, economic conditions, socio-cultural influences, legal rights (Medieval guilds), and evolving taste. The earliest breads were unleavened. Variations in grain, thickness, shape, and texture varied from culture to culture.

    Archaelogical evidence confirms yeast (both as leavening agent and for brewing ale) was used in Egypt as early as 4000 B.C. Food historians generally cite this date for the discovery of leavened food and genesis of the brewing industry. There is an alternate theory regarding the invention of brewing. Some historians believe it is possible that brewing began when the first cereal crops were domesticated.

    Sources generally agree the discovery of the powers of yeast was accidental. No one has yet managed to date the origins of beer with any precision, and it is probably an impossible task. Indeed, there are scholars who have theorized that a taste for ale prompted the beginning of agriculture, in which case humans have been brewing for some 10,000 years. Most archaeological evidence, however, suggests that fermentation was being used in one manner or another by around 4000 to 3500 B.C. Some of this evidence-from an ancient.

    Mesopotamian trading outpost called Godin Tepe in present-day Iran- indicates that barley was being fermented at that location around 3500 B.C. Additional evidence recovered at Hacinegi Tepe (a similar site in southern Turkey) also suggest that ancient Mesopotamians were fermenting barley at a very early date.

    10. Some historians believe that cereal crops are responsible for the beginning of brewing.
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    Explanation

    True.There are many good keywords which will lead us to look at the second paragraph. We are told that ‘some historians believe it is possible that brewing began when the first cereal crops were domesticated’, which directly confirms our statement as true.

    Post Comment

    Bread, Beer & Yeast

    The history of bread and cake starts with Neolithic cooks and marches through time according to ingredient availability, advances in technology, economic conditions, socio-cultural influences, legal rights (Medieval guilds), and evolving taste. The earliest breads were unleavened. Variations in grain, thickness, shape, and texture varied from culture to culture.

    Archaelogical evidence confirms yeast (both as leavening agent and for brewing ale) was used in Egypt as early as 4000 B.C. Food historians generally cite this date for the discovery of leavened food and genesis of the brewing industry. There is an alternate theory regarding the invention of brewing. Some historians believe it is possible that brewing began when the first cereal crops were domesticated.

    Sources generally agree the discovery of the powers of yeast was accidental. No one has yet managed to date the origins of beer with any precision, and it is probably an impossible task. Indeed, there are scholars who have theorized that a taste for ale prompted the beginning of agriculture, in which case humans have been brewing for some 10,000 years. Most archaeological evidence, however, suggests that fermentation was being used in one manner or another by around 4000 to 3500 B.C. Some of this evidence-from an ancient.

    Mesopotamian trading outpost called Godin Tepe in present-day Iran- indicates that barley was being fermented at that location around 3500 B.C. Additional evidence recovered at Hacinegi Tepe (a similar site in southern Turkey) also suggest that ancient Mesopotamians were fermenting barley at a very early date.

    11. Hacinegi Tepe is only found in Northern Turkey.
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    Explanation

    False.The use of ‘only’ makes this Extreme Language. Looking for the keyword ‘Hacinegi Tepe’, we see that it is found in Southern Turkey, and therefore it cannot ‘only’ be found elsewhere, making this statement false.

    Post Comment

    Bread, Beer & Yeast

    The history of bread and cake starts with Neolithic cooks and marches through time according to ingredient availability, advances in technology, economic conditions, socio-cultural influences, legal rights (Medieval guilds), and evolving taste. The earliest breads were unleavened. Variations in grain, thickness, shape, and texture varied from culture to culture.

    Archaelogical evidence confirms yeast (both as leavening agent and for brewing ale) was used in Egypt as early as 4000 B.C. Food historians generally cite this date for the discovery of leavened food and genesis of the brewing industry. There is an alternate theory regarding the invention of brewing. Some historians believe it is possible that brewing began when the first cereal crops were domesticated.

    Sources generally agree the discovery of the powers of yeast was accidental. No one has yet managed to date the origins of beer with any precision, and it is probably an impossible task. Indeed, there are scholars who have theorized that a taste for ale prompted the beginning of agriculture, in which case humans have been brewing for some 10,000 years. Most archaeological evidence, however, suggests that fermentation was being used in one manner or another by around 4000 to 3500 B.C. Some of this evidence-from an ancient.

    Mesopotamian trading outpost called Godin Tepe in present-day Iran- indicates that barley was being fermented at that location around 3500 B.C. Additional evidence recovered at Hacinegi Tepe (a similar site in southern Turkey) also suggest that ancient Mesopotamians were fermenting barley at a very early date.

    12. The area known as Mesopotamia is the direct equivalent of modern Iran only.
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    Explanation

    Can’t Tell.‘Mesopotamia’ is a good keyword to look for, and we find this alongside ‘Iran’ in the 3rd paragraph. Whilst we know that present-day Iran was once Mesopotamian, we cannot be certain that the 2 geographical areas directly overlie. Mesopotamia was in fact a large area, encompassing many countries.

    Post Comment
    Tamzin Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 17 Sep 2020 20:09:59

    Shouldn't the answer be b) false? We know that the Mesopotamian outpost is in Iran, and we also know that evidence from Turkey shows Mesopotamian bread-making?

    £60 Fines for Being Late to School

    Councils are cracking down on tardy children, with parents who don’t pay up facing prosecution. Families have been told they face fines if children are repeatedly late for school, with the threat of prosecution for those who do not pay.

    Councils and schools in the West Midlands, Hampshire and Essex are among those that have extended the £60 fixed penalties they issue for absenteeism, including holidays in term time, to cases of lateness. Warwickshire county council has issued guidance to say it can fine families if pupils are often late, defined as arriving more than 30 minutes after the register is taken.

    Winter Gardens Academy in Essex has told parents they can be fined £60 if their children consistently turn up after 9am, rising to £120 if not paid within 21 days.An Eastern Asian government’s behaviour tsar said sanctions to improve punctuality could include making children collect litter, remove chewing gum or mop classroom floors before school, a measure used in South Korea, often a leader in academic league tables. He said fines could be used as a last resort.Tom Bennet said parents whose teenage children were regularly late should walk with them.

    “Most pupils would rather make sure not to miss their alarm, than be seen walking up to school with their parents,” he said. Bennet admits he was late for school every day when he was studying for his A-levels. Bennet believes that the increase in technology has had a role in increasing the number of students being late for school, because many are staying up late on their phones.

    13. Based on the information in the passage, which of the following statements is false?
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    Explanation

    It is important to notice that this is a reverse question. It is asking you which of the statements is False, so if any statements are True or Can’t Tell they are not the answer option.

    A – Whilst the passage is about issuing fines for being late, there is no discussion of the impact of the fines on lateness.

    B – South Korea is referred to as being a ‘leader in academic league tables’, so can infer that this statement must be true.

    C – Looking for the any keyword relating to a cost, we find that one scheme has a fine of £60, but we do not know that this is the maximum. Therefore we can’t tell if this statement is true or not.

    D – Using the keyword ‘Essex’, because it is a capitalised noun. We find it in the second paragraph, where it mentions that ‘councils and schools in West Midlands, Hampshire and Essex are among those’ with the penalty. ‘Among those’ indicates that there are more than just these 3, so the statement is false in saying the fine only exists in 3 UK districts.

    Post Comment

    £60 Fines for Being Late to School

    Councils are cracking down on tardy children, with parents who don’t pay up facing prosecution. Families have been told they face fines if children are repeatedly late for school, with the threat of prosecution for those who do not pay.

    Councils and schools in the West Midlands, Hampshire and Essex are among those that have extended the £60 fixed penalties they issue for absenteeism, including holidays in term time, to cases of lateness. Warwickshire county council has issued guidance to say it can fine families if pupils are often late, defined as arriving more than 30 minutes after the register is taken.

    Winter Gardens Academy in Essex has told parents they can be fined £60 if their children consistently turn up after 9am, rising to £120 if not paid within 21 days.An Eastern Asian government’s behaviour tsar said sanctions to improve punctuality could include making children collect litter, remove chewing gum or mop classroom floors before school, a measure used in South Korea, often a leader in academic league tables. He said fines could be used as a last resort.Tom Bennet said parents whose teenage children were regularly late should walk with them.

    “Most pupils would rather make sure not to miss their alarm, than be seen walking up to school with their parents,” he said. Bennet admits he was late for school every day when he was studying for his A-levels. Bennet believes that the increase in technology has had a role in increasing the number of students being late for school, because many are staying up late on their phones.

    14. In order to tackle lateness, various solutions have been been proposed, except for:
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    Explanation

    This is an Except Question, which is asking for the solution that is not confirmed by the passage.

    A – Our keyword would be ‘walk’ or it’s synonyms. In the final paragraph, Tom Bennet suggests that ‘parents whose teenage children were regularly late should walk with them’, which is to say that this could be a potential solution for lateness.

    B – ‘Holidays’ is a good keyword, and can be found at the end of the 2nd paragraph. Whilst we are told that penalties can be issued for parents that take their children on holiday during term time, we are not told that preventing this would be a potential solution.

    C – This is the main topic of the passage, and they mention the £60 fine regularly.

    D – ‘Chewing gum’ comes up in the 4th paragraph, where it is suggested as a solution to improve punctuality, which is to say prevent lateness.

    Post Comment

    £60 Fines for Being Late to School

    Councils are cracking down on tardy children, with parents who don’t pay up facing prosecution. Families have been told they face fines if children are repeatedly late for school, with the threat of prosecution for those who do not pay.

    Councils and schools in the West Midlands, Hampshire and Essex are among those that have extended the £60 fixed penalties they issue for absenteeism, including holidays in term time, to cases of lateness. Warwickshire county council has issued guidance to say it can fine families if pupils are often late, defined as arriving more than 30 minutes after the register is taken.

    Winter Gardens Academy in Essex has told parents they can be fined £60 if their children consistently turn up after 9am, rising to £120 if not paid within 21 days.An Eastern Asian government’s behaviour tsar said sanctions to improve punctuality could include making children collect litter, remove chewing gum or mop classroom floors before school, a measure used in South Korea, often a leader in academic league tables. He said fines could be used as a last resort.Tom Bennet said parents whose teenage children were regularly late should walk with them.

    “Most pupils would rather make sure not to miss their alarm, than be seen walking up to school with their parents,” he said. Bennet admits he was late for school every day when he was studying for his A-levels. Bennet believes that the increase in technology has had a role in increasing the number of students being late for school.

    15. Lateness is becoming more of a problem for schools to deal with. Which of the following is a cited reason for students being late?
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    Explanation

    A – ‘A-Levels’ is only mentioned when Tom Bennet said he was late every day whilst studying for them. However, this does not say that it was directly the stress of his studies that made him late.

    B – This is mentioned in the final paragraph, but is cited as a possible solution, rather than a reason for the lateness itself.

    C – ‘Alarm’ is mentioned in a quote by Tom Bennet, where we are told that ‘most pupils would rather make sure not to miss their alarm…’ implying that some of them do miss their alarm, explaining their lateness. This is therefore a valid reason and is the correct answer.

    D – Whilst technology is cited a reason for lateness, we cannot be sure that this specifically encompasses ‘iPhones’, or whether it is other devices mainly at play. This is an example of a passage adjustment, and therefore cannot be taken as true.

    Post Comment
    Alex Medicmind Tutor

    Tue, 29 Sep 2020 14:00:39

    The justification for the answer is weak.

    £60 Fines for Being Late to School

    Councils are cracking down on tardy children, with parents who don’t pay up facing prosecution. Families have been told they face fines if children are repeatedly late for school, with the threat of prosecution for those who do not pay.

    Councils and schools in the West Midlands, Hampshire and Essex are among those that have extended the £60 fixed penalties they issue for absenteeism, including holidays in term time, to cases of lateness. Warwickshire county council has issued guidance to say it can fine families if pupils are often late, defined as arriving more than 30 minutes after the register is taken.

    Winter Gardens Academy in Essex has told parents they can be fined £60 if their children consistently turn up after 9am, rising to £120 if not paid within 21 days.An Eastern Asian government’s behaviour tsar said sanctions to improve punctuality could include making children collect litter, remove chewing gum or mop classroom floors before school, a measure used in South Korea, often a leader in academic league tables. He said fines could be used as a last resort.Tom Bennet said parents whose teenage children were regularly late should walk with them.

    “Most pupils would rather make sure not to miss their alarm, than be seen walking up to school with their parents,” he said. Bennet admits he was late for school every day when he was studying for his A-levels. Bennet believes that the increase in technology has had a role in increasing the number of students being late for school, because many are staying up late on their phones.

    16. There are various different reasons a family may be given a fine. According to the passage, which of the following scenarios may occur?
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    Explanation

    A – Looking for ‘Midlands’ we can see that West Midlands may impose a fine for this reason, but we have no way to be able to extrapolate this to anywhere in the Midlands. This is an example of a passage adjustment.

    B – ‘Warwickshire county council’ comes up in the 3rd paragraph. We are told that if they often ‘arrive more than 30 mins after registration is taken’ that they may face a fine. However, based on the information in the passage, we cannot know if ‘mid-morning’ is after registration or not. 

    C – ‘Winter Gardens Academy’ is mentioned in the 3rd paragraph, and we can see that. The fine may rise to £120 if not paid within 21 days, and as 4 weeks is over this threshold, we know this scensario is true.

    D – as A and B are not valid scenarios, this statement cannot be correct.

    Post Comment
    Petar Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 23 Oct 2020 08:23:24

    I can't agree with you because the question is : "There are various different reasons a family may be given a fine. According to the passage, which of the following scenarios may occur?". The say the right answer is "A student of Winter Gardens Academy who received a fine 4 weeks ago, paying £120. " The reason for giving a fine is the student is late, which is £60, the reason for having a £120 fine is because you didn't paid it on time, what I mean by that is the £120 is not a reason for a fine.

    You are what you eat right? You are what your gut microbes eat.

    And this appears to be one of the reasons giant pandas are struggling to survive. The microbes inside their guts are “optimized to digest meat” — this despite the fact that pandas have been eating a nearly exclusive diet of fibrous bamboo for some 2 million years.This conclusion comes from researchers’ analysis of panda droppings.

    They collected faecal matter from 45 pandas in the wild — in spring, summer and fall — and sequenced the DNA. The findings are published in the American microbiology journal, mBio. “The giant panda evolved from omnivorous bears,” the study states. “It lives on a bamboo-dominated diet at present, but it still retains a typical carnivorous digestive system and is genetically deficient in cellulose-digesting enzymes.”

    The paper adds: “The peculiar characteristics of its gut microbiota may put it at high risk of extinction.” The giant panda is arguably the most beloved animal in the world. But despite decades of effort from conservationists (the panda is the symbol of the World Wildlife Fund), the animal remains endangered. Fewer than 2,000 giants pandas live in the wild, and the animals are well known for having trouble reproducing.There are many reasons for the giant panda’s perilous state, but the low diversity of its gut microbes is definitely not helping the situation. It is becoming conventional wisdom that high diversity in gut microbes makes it easier for animals to adapt to changing environments.

    The giant panda is not adapting. “Unlike other herbivores that have successfully evolved anatomically specialised digestive systems to efficiently deconstruct fibrous plant matter, the giant panda still retains a gastrointestinal tract typical of carnivores,” the researchers write.

    17. Based on the findings of the study published in mBio, giant pandas are:
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    Explanation

    A – We know that giant pandas evolved from omnivorous bears, however we have not been told if brown bears are omnivores, so we cannot assume this statement is true.

    B – The last paragraph tells us that giant pandas do not have digestive symptoms akin to other herbivores, who are able to digest plant matter. We can infer that they are therefore not able to digest fibrous plant matter, such as bamboo. We can confirm that bamboo is fibrous plant matter from the first paragraph. Therefore this statement is correct.

    C – The 3rd paragraph confirms that they are deficient in cellulose, however no other enzyme is mentioned. We do not know whether other enzymes are equally deficient.

    D –  The study says that they are at risk of extinction due to ‘peculiar characteristics of its gut microbiota’, but this doesn’t mean that they are already dying out, and also we cannot take this to mean inappropriate bacteria, as we have not been told gut microbiota involves bacteria.

    Post Comment
    UCATER Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 31 Jan 2021 13:09:23

    Bamboo is never mention in quotation marks so it is not specifically mentioned in the mBio whereas "cellulose-digesting enzymes" are mentioned. Should be B

    You are what you eat right? You are what your gut microbes eat.

    And this appears to be one of the reasons giant pandas are struggling to survive. The microbes inside their guts are “optimized to digest meat” — this despite the fact that pandas have been eating a nearly exclusive diet of fibrous bamboo for some 2 million years.This conclusion comes from researchers’ analysis of panda droppings.

    They collected faecal matter from 45 pandas in the wild — in spring, summer and fall — and sequenced the DNA. The findings are published in the American microbiology journal, mBio. “The giant panda evolved from omnivorous bears,” the study states. “It lives on a bamboo-dominated diet at present, but it still retains a typical carnivorous digestive system and is genetically deficient in cellulose-digesting enzymes.”

    The paper adds: “The peculiar characteristics of its gut microbiota may put it at high risk of extinction.” The giant panda is arguably the most beloved animal in the world. But despite decades of effort from conservationists (the panda is the symbol of the World Wildlife Fund), the animal remains endangered. Fewer than 2,000 giants pandas live in the wild, and the animals are well known for having trouble reproducing.There are many reasons for the giant panda’s perilous state, but the low diversity of its gut microbes is definitely not helping the situation. It is becoming conventional wisdom that high diversity in gut microbes makes it easier for animals to adapt to changing environments.

    The giant panda is not adapting. “Unlike other herbivores that have successfully evolved anatomically specialised digestive systems to efficiently deconstruct fibrous plant matter, the giant panda still retains a gastrointestinal tract typical of carnivores,” the researchers write.

    18. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
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    Explanation

    A – ‘America’ is only mentioned in the context of the journal of the published research. There is no saying that the research was carried out in America, just because it has been published in an American journal.

    B – Their poor ability to reproduce is mentioned at the end of the 4th paragraph, but not in the context of evolution. We cannot make this assumption.

    C – Looking for ‘World Wildlife Fund’ we find that this is related to work of conservationists, and it is reasonable to assume that the organisation is also conservational. 

    D – ‘2000’ is a good key word, and we are told that ‘fewer than 2,000 giants pandas live in the wild’, but our statement is about the number left ‘in the world’. This passage adjustment means we cannot infer this as true.

    Post Comment

    You are what you eat right? You are what your gut microbes eat.

    And this appears to be one of the reasons giant pandas are struggling to survive. The microbes inside their guts are “optimized to digest meat” — this despite the fact that pandas have been eating a nearly exclusive diet of fibrous bamboo for some 2 million years.This conclusion comes from researchers’ analysis of panda droppings.

    They collected faecal matter from 45 pandas in the wild — in spring, summer and fall — and sequenced the DNA. The findings are published in the American microbiology journal, mBio. “The giant panda evolved from omnivorous bears,” the study states. “It lives on a bamboo-dominated diet at present, but it still retains a typical carnivorous digestive system and is genetically deficient in cellulose-digesting enzymes.”

    The paper adds: “The peculiar characteristics of its gut microbiota may put it at high risk of extinction.” The giant panda is arguably the most beloved animal in the world. But despite decades of effort from conservationists (the panda is the symbol of the World Wildlife Fund), the animal remains endangered. Fewer than 2,000 giants pandas live in the wild, and the animals are well known for having trouble reproducing.There are many reasons for the giant panda’s perilous state, but the low diversity of its gut microbes is definitely not helping the situation. It is becoming conventional wisdom that high diversity in gut microbes makes it easier for animals to adapt to changing environments.

    The giant panda is not adapting. “Unlike other herbivores that have successfully evolved anatomically specialised digestive systems to efficiently deconstruct fibrous plant matter, the giant panda still retains a gastrointestinal tract typical of carnivores,” the researchers write.

    19. The author of the passage would most likely agree that giant pandas:
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    Explanation

    A – The beginning of the 4th paragraph says that it is ‘arguably the most beloved animal in the world’. It would make sense that it would be missed if it were to go extinct. Therefore this is the correct answer.

    B – The passage generally speaks about a wrongly designed microbiome, but there is nothing suggesting the author feels strongly about the giant panda being required to change its diet to survive. In fact, they state ‘there are many reasons for the giant panda’s perilous state’.

    C – The passage says that evolution is the cause of the poor gut microbiota, but it never says that it is the cause of their diet itself.

    D – We are told that they are possibly evolutionarily inferior to other herbivores, but not necessarily to other bears. 

    Post Comment

    You are what you eat right? You are what your gut microbes eat.

    And this appears to be one of the reasons giant pandas are struggling to survive. The microbes inside their guts are “optimized to digest meat” — this despite the fact that pandas have been eating a nearly exclusive diet of fibrous bamboo for some 2 million years.This conclusion comes from researchers’ analysis of panda droppings.

    They collected faecal matter from 45 pandas in the wild — in spring, summer and fall — and sequenced the DNA. The findings are published in the American microbiology journal, mBio. “The giant panda evolved from omnivorous bears,” the study states. “It lives on a bamboo-dominated diet at present, but it still retains a typical carnivorous digestive system and is genetically deficient in cellulose-digesting enzymes.”

    The paper adds: “The peculiar characteristics of its gut microbiota may put it at high risk of extinction.” The giant panda is arguably the most beloved animal in the world. But despite decades of effort from conservationists (the panda is the symbol of the World Wildlife Fund), the animal remains endangered. Fewer than 2,000 giants pandas live in the wild, and the animals are well known for having trouble reproducing.There are many reasons for the giant panda’s perilous state, but the low diversity of its gut microbes is definitely not helping the situation. It is becoming conventional wisdom that high diversity in gut microbes makes it easier for animals to adapt to changing environments.

    The giant panda is not adapting. “Unlike other herbivores that have successfully evolved anatomically specialised digestive systems to efficiently deconstruct fibrous plant matter, the giant panda still retains a gastrointestinal tract typical of carnivores,” the researchers write.

    20. mBio is a neurobiology journal.
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    Explanation

    False. Looking for the keyword of ‘mBio’ we find in the 2nd paragraph, we are told that it is a ‘microbiology journal’, and therefore not a neurobiology journal. This statement must be false.

    Post Comment

    The precursor of pizza was probably the focaccia, a flat bread known to the Romans as panis focacius, to which toppings were then added. Modern pizza developed in Naples, when tomato was added to the focaccia in the late 18th century. Neapolitan pizza itself is believed to have originated from a similar dish called Jeyoun.

    The word pizza was first documented in AD 997 in Gaeta, and successively in different parts of Central and Southern Italy. Pizza was mainly eaten in the country of Italy and by emigrants from there. This changed after World War II, when Allied troops stationed in Italy came to enjoy pizza along with other Italian foods.

    Foods similar to pizza have been made since the neolithic age. Records of people adding other ingredients to bread to make it more flavorful can be found throughout ancient history. In Sardinia, French and Italian archaeologists have found bread baked over 8,000 years ago. According to Professor Philippe Marinval, the local islanders leavened this bread. The Ancient Greeks had a flat bread called plakous (πλακοῦς, gen. πλακοῦντος—plakountos) which was flavored with toppings like herbs, onion, and garlic.

    In the 6th century BC, the soldiers in Persian King Darius I armies baked flatbreads with cheese and dates on top of their battle shields. An early reference to a pizza-like food occurs in the Aeneid (ca. 19 BC), when Celaeno, queen of the Harpies, foretells that the Trojans would not find peace until they are forced by hunger to eat their tables (Book III).

    21. Pizza-like food has an extensive history. According to the passage, pizza- like food:
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    Explanation

    A – Using the keyword of ‘10th century’, we can see it was the word pizza that was first documented in AD 997, however we are told at the end that an early reference to pizza-like food occurred in 19 BC, therefore this statement cannot be true.

    B – This statement is confirmed by the bullet points at the end of the passage, which details all the different flavourings applied to pizza.

    C – There is no mention of Pizza being Italy’s signature dish anywhere in the passage.

    D – When looking for the keyword ‘focaccia’, we actually see the contrary. The focaccia was a precursor for pizza – not the opposite way round.

     

    Post Comment

    The precursor of pizza was probably the focaccia, a flat bread known to the Romans as panis focacius, to which toppings were then added. Modern pizza developed in Naples, when tomato was added to the focaccia in the late 18th century. Neapolitan pizza itself is believed to have originated from a similar dish called Jeyoun.

    The word pizza was first documented in AD 997 in Gaeta, and successively in different parts of Central and Southern Italy. Pizza was mainly eaten in the country of Italy and by emigrants from there. This changed after World War II, when Allied troops stationed in Italy came to enjoy pizza along with other Italian foods.

    Foods similar to pizza have been made since the neolithic age. Records of people adding other ingredients to bread to make it more flavorful can be found throughout ancient history. In Sardinia, French and Italian archaeologists have found bread baked over 8,000 years ago. According to Professor Philippe Marinval, the local islanders leavened this bread. The Ancient Greeks had a flat bread called plakous (πλακοῦς, gen. πλακοῦντος—plakountos) which was flavored with toppings like herbs, onion, and garlic.

    In the 6th century BC, the soldiers in Persian King Darius I armies baked flatbreads with cheese and dates on top of their battle shields. An early reference to a pizza-like food occurs in the Aeneid (ca. 19 BC), when Celaeno, queen of the Harpies, foretells that the Trojans would not find peace until they are forced by hunger to eat their tables (Book III).

    22. Sardinian history shows early accounts of pizza-like bread. The following are true of Sardinia, except:
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    Explanation

    This is a type 1 statement question, so we can look for ‘Sardinia’ which comes up in the first bullet point at the end of the passage. This is an Except Question, so we are looking for which statement is not true.

    A – Whilst we know the island has been explored by French and Italian archeologists, this does not mean that these are the nationalities living here.  However, we do not know whether this statement is necessarily false.

    B – Bread baking was over 8,000 years ago. King Darius I was ruling in the 6th century BC, so it is reasonable to assume this statement is false.

    C – Professor Philippe Marnival makes a statement on the practices of the local islanders, and it is a reasonable inference to say he must have studied their lives

    D – The line preceding the bullet points explains that each bullet point is an example of a time in history where bread was made more flavourful – so this must be true of Sardinian bread.

    Post Comment
    Tamzin Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 17 Sep 2020 20:14:17

    This answer is wrong! 8000 years ago would be 6000BC, while 7th century is only 700BC. Also, the 7th century BC is *before* the 6th century BC, not after.

    The precursor of pizza was probably the focaccia, a flat bread known to the Romans as panis focacius, to which toppings were then added. Modern pizza developed in Naples, when tomato was added to the focaccia in the late 18th century. Neapolitan pizza itself is believed to have originated from a similar dish called Jeyoun.

    The word pizza was first documented in AD 997 in Gaeta, and successively in different parts of Central and Southern Italy. Pizza was mainly eaten in the country of Italy and by emigrants from there. This changed after World War II, when Allied troops stationed in Italy came to enjoy pizza along with other Italian foods.

    Foods similar to pizza have been made since the neolithic age. Records of people adding other ingredients to bread to make it more flavorful can be found throughout ancient history. In Sardinia, French and Italian archaeologists have found bread baked over 8,000 years ago. According to Professor Philippe Marinval, the local islanders leavened this bread. The Ancient Greeks had a flat bread called plakous (πλακοῦς, gen. πλακοῦντος—plakountos) which was flavored with toppings like herbs, onion, and garlic.

    In the 6th century BC, the soldiers in Persian King Darius I armies baked flatbreads with cheese and dates on top of their battle shields. An early reference to a pizza-like food occurs in the Aeneid (ca. 19 BC), when Celaeno, queen of the Harpies, foretells that the Trojans would not find peace until they are forced by hunger to eat their tables (Book III).

    23. Which of the following dishes was first invented most recently?
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    Explanation

    D-Looking for the names of the dishes in the text, we are not told the date of any of the 3 options. Therefore we cannot tell which came first.

    Post Comment

    The precursor of pizza was probably the focaccia, a flat bread known to the Romans as panis focacius, to which toppings were then added. Modern pizza developed in Naples, when tomato was added to the focaccia in the late 18th century. Neapolitan pizza itself is believed to have originated from a similar dish called Jeyoun.

    The word pizza was first documented in AD 997 in Gaeta, and successively in different parts of Central and Southern Italy. Pizza was mainly eaten in the country of Italy and by emigrants from there. This changed after World War II, when Allied troops stationed in Italy came to enjoy pizza along with other Italian foods.

    Foods similar to pizza have been made since the neolithic age. Records of people adding other ingredients to bread to make it more flavorful can be found throughout ancient history. In Sardinia, French and Italian archaeologists have found bread baked over 8,000 years ago. According to Professor Philippe Marinval, the local islanders leavened this bread. The Ancient Greeks had a flat bread called plakous (πλακοῦς, gen. πλακοῦντος—plakountos) which was flavored with toppings like herbs, onion, and garlic.

    In the 6th century BC, the soldiers in Persian King Darius I armies baked flatbreads with cheese and dates on top of their battle shields. An early reference to a pizza-like food occurs in the Aeneid (ca. 19 BC), when Celaeno, queen of the Harpies, foretells that the Trojans would not find peace until they are forced by hunger to eat their tables (Book III).

    24. Which of the following statements can be reasonably inferred as true from the passage?
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    Explanation

    A – The keyword of ‘World War II’ would take us to the end of the 2nd paragraph, however we are not told of Italy’s stance in WWII, only that there were allied troops present. This cannot be inferred.  

    B – ‘Gaeta’ would take us to the beginning of the second paragraph. We are told that the word ‘pizza’ was documented, here and then successively in ‘different parts of Central and Southern Italy’. This does not confirm Gaeta is Northern Italy, as these may not be the only 3 divisions of the country. Additionally, we do not know whether Gaeta is in Central or Southern Italy, and the spread of the word was simply to other parts.

    C – Whilst this statement has lots of keywords, as the foods, which are spread amongst the passage, most of the ingredients are found in the middle 2 bullet points. ‘Tomato’ can be found in the first paragraph – therefore this statement is. true.

    D – ‘Neolithic’ can be found at the beginning of the 3rd paragraph, but we are not told anything about the specific time period here. Ancient Greece and Persian Empires are mentioned in the bullet points, but this may not necessarily relate to neolithic.

    Post Comment

    Mt Fuji, Lake Ashi and Bullet Train Day Trip from Tokyo

    After morning pickup at selected Tokyo hotels or Hamamatsucho Bus Terminal, relax as your deluxe coach cruises along a scenic 2.5-hour route to Mt Fuji Visitor Center. Learn about the history and geology of Japan’s highest mountain from your guide and the informational exhibits about the revered mountain.

    From the second floor observation deck, you can get great views of Mt Fuji on a clear day.After seeing the Visitor Center, return to your coach and proceed to Mt Fuji’s 5th Station, located about halfway up the mountain at 7,545 feet (2,300m).

    Take in the shrines, torii gates and shops that sell souvenirs, along with views of Mt Fuji and the surrounding lakes (subject to weather conditions). Soak in the invigorating atmosphere of 5th Station; you might even spot some climbers preparing for their adventure.Then have time for lunch. You can choose the upgrade that includes a Japanese-style lunch, or have the option to buy your own meal. After having a bite to eat, drive to nearby Lake Ashi, located in Hakone National Park. Step aboard your boat for a short cruise across the lake. Admire the spectacular scenery of pristine waters surrounded by Mt Komagatake, Mt Fuji and other mountains.

    Disembark from the boat and head to the Mt Komagatake Ropeway, an aerial tram that takes you from the shores of Lake Ashi to the top of Mt Komagatake. Have time to walk around the mountain top and take in amazing views of Lake Ashi, the Owakudani volcanic valley and majestic Mt Fuji. After visiting Hakone, transfer by coach to the evening bullet train (Shinkansen) for your return to Tokyo, where your guide will tell you how to get back to your hotel.

    This tour also offer a discounted option with pickup at Keio Plaza Hotel in Shinjuku for direct transfer to Mt Fuji without stopping at Hamamatsucho Bus Terminal. This Shinjuku direct departure option allows you to spend more time at Mt Fuji. It is worth noting that views around Mt Fuji are always subject to weather conditions as mountain weather is notoriously unpredictable. Visibility tends to be better during the colder months, in the early morning and late evening.

    25.Which of the following would the author most likely agree with?
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    Explanation

    A – We are not told anything about when it is a rainy day – only that ‘you can great views of Mt Fuji on a clear day’. 

    B – We are not given the author’s opinion on the Japanese-style lunch.

    C – We are told that the tourist will be able to ‘admire the spectacular scenery of pristine waters surrounded by Mt Komagatake’. This means that the scenery is indeed ‘stunning’.

    D – We are not given any information on the author’s opinion of the bus terminal.

    Post Comment

    Mt Fuji, Lake Ashi and Bullet Train Day Trip from Tokyo

    After morning pickup at selected Tokyo hotels or Hamamatsucho Bus Terminal, relax as your deluxe coach cruises along a scenic 2.5-hour route to Mt Fuji Visitor Center. Learn about the history and geology of Japan’s highest mountain from your guide and the informational exhibits about the revered mountain.

    From the second floor observation deck, you can get great views of Mt Fuji on a clear day.After seeing the Visitor Center, return to your coach and proceed to Mt Fuji’s 5th Station, located about halfway up the mountain at 7,545 feet (2,300m).

    Take in the shrines, torii gates and shops that sell souvenirs, along with views of Mt Fuji and the surrounding lakes (subject to weather conditions). Soak in the invigorating atmosphere of 5th Station; you might even spot some climbers preparing for their adventure.Then have time for lunch. You can choose the upgrade that includes a Japanese-style lunch, or have the option to buy your own meal. After having a bite to eat, drive to nearby Lake Ashi, located in Hakone National Park. Step aboard your boat for a short cruise across the lake. Admire the spectacular scenery of pristine waters surrounded by Mt Komagatake, Mt Fuji and other mountains.

    Disembark from the boat and head to the Mt Komagatake Ropeway, an aerial tram that takes you from the shores of Lake Ashi to the top of Mt Komagatake. Have time to walk around the mountain top and take in amazing views of Lake Ashi, the Owakudani volcanic valley and majestic Mt Fuji. After visiting Hakone, transfer by coach to the evening bullet train (Shinkansen) for your return to Tokyo, where your guide will tell you how to get back to your hotel.

    This tour also offer a discounted option with pickup at Keio Plaza Hotel in Shinjuku for direct transfer to Mt Fuji without stopping at Hamamatsucho Bus Terminal. This Shinjuku direct departure option allows you to spend more time at Mt Fuji. It is worth noting that views around Mt Fuji are always subject to weather conditions as mountain weather is notoriously unpredictable. Visibility tends to be better during the colder months, in the early morning and late evening.

    26. Mt. Fuji has various features which make it a tourist spot. What can we infer about a trip to Mt. Fuji?
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    Explanation

    A – We know that there are various options for lunch and we are explicitly told that there is ‘time for lunch’. This statement is false.     

    B – We are told that that it is a ‘scenic 2.5-hour route’, and therefore it is not more than 3 hours. This statement is false.

    C – We are told that Mt Fuji’s 5th station is located about halfway up the mountain at 2,300m therefore double that is 4,600m which is less than 5000m.

    D – In the final paragraph, we are told that views around Mt Fuji are always subject to weather conditions, and therefore will not ‘always’ be majestic. This is Extreme Language.

    Post Comment

    Mt Fuji, Lake Ashi and Bullet Train Day Trip from Tokyo

    After morning pickup at selected Tokyo hotels or Hamamatsucho Bus Terminal, relax as your deluxe coach cruises along a scenic 2.5-hour route to Mt Fuji Visitor Center. Learn about the history and geology of Japan’s highest mountain from your guide and the informational exhibits about the revered mountain.

    From the second floor observation deck, you can get great views of Mt Fuji on a clear day.After seeing the Visitor Center, return to your coach and proceed to Mt Fuji’s 5th Station, located about halfway up the mountain at 7,545 feet (2,300m).

    Take in the shrines, torii gates and shops that sell souvenirs, along with views of Mt Fuji and the surrounding lakes (subject to weather conditions). Soak in the invigorating atmosphere of 5th Station; you might even spot some climbers preparing for their adventure.Then have time for lunch. You can choose the upgrade that includes a Japanese-style lunch, or have the option to buy your own meal. After having a bite to eat, drive to nearby Lake Ashi, located in Hakone National Park. Step aboard your boat for a short cruise across the lake. Admire the spectacular scenery of pristine waters surrounded by Mt Komagatake, Mt Fuji and other mountains.

    Disembark from the boat and head to the Mt Komagatake Ropeway, an aerial tram that takes you from the shores of Lake Ashi to the top of Mt Komagatake. Have time to walk around the mountain top and take in amazing views of Lake Ashi, the Owakudani volcanic valley and majestic Mt Fuji. After visiting Hakone, transfer by coach to the evening bullet train (Shinkansen) for your return to Tokyo, where your guide will tell you how to get back to your hotel.

    This tour also offer a discounted option with pickup at Keio Plaza Hotel in Shinjuku for direct transfer to Mt Fuji without stopping at Hamamatsucho Bus Terminal. This Shinjuku direct departure option allows you to spend more time at Mt Fuji. It is worth noting that views around Mt Fuji are always subject to weather conditions as mountain weather is notoriously unpredictable. Visibility tends to be better during the colder months, in the early morning and late evening.

    27. Mt Fuji is best reached by bus. According to the passage, which of the following is true about travelling to Mt. Fuji?
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    Explanation

    A – At the end of the second paragraph, we are told that the guide will tell you how to get back to your hotel. This does not mean that they will take you directly back to the hotel.

    B – The end of the second paragraph tells us that that Shinkansen is the evening bullet train, and therefore not the name of the bus company.

    C – The only information about Lake Ashi is at the beginning of the second paragraph, showing that is is located in Hakone National Park. No relationship to Mt Komagatake Ropeway is mentioned.

    D – At the end of the second paragraph, we are told this tour also offer a discounted option with pickup at Keio Plaza Hotel in Shinjuku for direct transfer to Mt Fuji without stopping at Hamamatsucho Bus Terminal. Therefore this statement is true.

    Post Comment

    Mt Fuji, Lake Ashi and Bullet Train Day Trip from Tokyo

    After morning pickup at selected Tokyo hotels or Hamamatsucho Bus Terminal, relax as your deluxe coach cruises along a scenic 2.5-hour route to Mt Fuji Visitor Center. Learn about the history and geology of Japan’s highest mountain from your guide and the informational exhibits about the revered mountain.

    From the second floor observation deck, you can get great views of Mt Fuji on a clear day.After seeing the Visitor Center, return to your coach and proceed to Mt Fuji’s 5th Station, located about halfway up the mountain at 7,545 feet (2,300m).

    Take in the shrines, torii gates and shops that sell souvenirs, along with views of Mt Fuji and the surrounding lakes (subject to weather conditions). Soak in the invigorating atmosphere of 5th Station; you might even spot some climbers preparing for their adventure.Then have time for lunch. You can choose the upgrade that includes a Japanese-style lunch, or have the option to buy your own meal. After having a bite to eat, drive to nearby Lake Ashi, located in Hakone National Park. Step aboard your boat for a short cruise across the lake. Admire the spectacular scenery of pristine waters surrounded by Mt Komagatake, Mt Fuji and other mountains.

    Disembark from the boat and head to the Mt Komagatake Ropeway, an aerial tram that takes you from the shores of Lake Ashi to the top of Mt Komagatake. Have time to walk around the mountain top and take in amazing views of Lake Ashi, the Owakudani volcanic valley and majestic Mt Fuji. After visiting Hakone, transfer by coach to the evening bullet train (Shinkansen) for your return to Tokyo, where your guide will tell you how to get back to your hotel.

    This tour also offer a discounted option with pickup at Keio Plaza Hotel in Shinjuku for direct transfer to Mt Fuji without stopping at Hamamatsucho Bus Terminal. This Shinjuku direct departure option allows you to spend more time at Mt Fuji. It is worth noting that views around Mt Fuji are always subject to weather conditions as mountain weather is notoriously unpredictable. Visibility tends to be better during the colder months, in the early morning and late evening.

    28. The author suggests that which of these monuments has the most revitalising atmosphere?
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    Explanation

    B-The end of the first paragraph tells us that the atmosphere of 5th station is ‘invigorating’. This is a synonym for revitalising. 

    Post Comment

    New HIV Guidelines

    According to a new WHO progress report lack of an HIV diagnosis is a major obstacle to implementing the Organization’s recommendation that everyone with HIV should be offered antiretroviral therapy (ART).

    The report reveals that more than 18 million people with HIV are currently taking ART, and a similar number is still unable to access treatment, the majority of which are unaware of their HIV positive status. Today, 40% of all people with HIV (over 14 million) remain unaware of their status. Many of these are people at higher risk of HIV infection who often find it difficult to access existing testing services.

    “Millions of people with HIV are still missing out on life-saving treatment, which can also prevent HIV transmission to others,” said Dr Margaret Chan, WHO Director-General. “HIV self-testing should open the door for many more people to know their HIV status and find out how to get treatment and access prevention services.”HIV self-testing means people can use oral fluid or blood- finger-pricks to discover their status in a private and convenient setting. Results are ready within 20 minutes or less. Those with positive results are advised to seek confirmatory tests at health clinics. WHO recommends they receive information and links to counselling as well as rapid referral to prevention, treatment and care services.

    HIV self-testing is a way to reach more people with undiagnosed HIV and represents a step forward to empower individuals, diagnose people earlier before they become sick, bring services closer to where people live, and create demand for HIV testing. This is particularly important for those people facing barriers to accessing existing services.

    Between 2005 and 2015 the proportion of people with HIV learning of their status increased from 12% to 60% globally. This increase in HIV testing uptake worldwide has led to more than 80% of all people diagnosed with HIV receiving ART.

    29. There are various outcomes of increasing availability of HIV testing. Self-testing provides numerous benefits, except:
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    Explanation

    A – We are told the results are ready ‘within 20 minutes or less’, and the author readily discusses accessibility of self testing in comparison to other testing services, so overall this statement is true.

    B – Paragraph 4 tells us that after a positive result via self testing, individuals are ‘advised to seek confirmatory tests at health clinics’, suggesting that the self testing is just a preliminary result.

    C – ‘Transmission’ comes up at the beginning of the 3rd paragraph, where we are told those who miss treatment may be transmitting it to others. However, we have not been told explicitly that self testing will cause this decrease in transmission. This is therefore the correct statement.

    D – ‘Services’ comes up within the 5th paragraph, where we are told that self testing is ‘a way to . . .  bring services closer to where people live’. This directly matches our statement.

    Post Comment

    New HIV Guidelines

    According to a new WHO progress report lack of an HIV diagnosis is a major obstacle to implementing the Organization’s recommendation that everyone with HIV should be offered antiretroviral therapy (ART).

    The report reveals that more than 18 million people with HIV are currently taking ART, and a similar number is still unable to access treatment, the majority of which are unaware of their HIV positive status. Today, 40% of all people with HIV (over 14 million) remain unaware of their status. Many of these are people at higher risk of HIV infection who often find it difficult to access existing testing services.

    “Millions of people with HIV are still missing out on life-saving treatment, which can also prevent HIV transmission to others,” said Dr Margaret Chan, WHO Director-General. “HIV self-testing should open the door for many more people to know their HIV status and find out how to get treatment and access prevention services.”HIV self-testing means people can use oral fluid or blood- finger-pricks to discover their status in a private and convenient setting. Results are ready within 20 minutes or less. Those with positive results are advised to seek confirmatory tests at health clinics. WHO recommends they receive information and links to counselling as well as rapid referral to prevention, treatment and care services.

    HIV self-testing is a way to reach more people with undiagnosed HIV and represents a step forward to empower individuals, diagnose people earlier before they become sick, bring services closer to where people live, and create demand for HIV testing. This is particularly important for those people facing barriers to accessing existing services.

    Between 2005 and 2015 the proportion of people with HIV learning of their status increased from 12% to 60% globally. This increase in HIV testing uptake worldwide has led to more than 80% of all people diagnosed with HIV receiving ART.

    30. What word is the author most likely to use to describe current HIV testing regimes?
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    Explanation

    A – As HIV self testing is a current regime, and this offers testing in a ‘private and convenient setting’, the author isn’t likely to believe testing is always intrusive.

    B – Whilst the author discusses self-testing as a way to ‘reach more people’ and briefly discusses ‘barriers to accessing existing services’, there is nothing strong enough to suggest that this is the most likely opinion of the author.

    C – We are told in the first line that getting diagnosed is a ‘major obstacle’ to everyone receiving treatment. The final paragraph as well also highlights how successful an increase in testing has been in increasing treatment uptake. Therefore, the author is likely to describe testing as paramount (i.e. important). 

    D – There is a mention of recommendation of accessing counselling services, however we are not told that this is specifically emotional counselling.

    Post Comment

    New HIV Guidelines

    According to a new WHO progress report lack of an HIV diagnosis is a major obstacle to implementing the Organization’s recommendation that everyone with HIV should be offered antiretroviral therapy (ART).

    The report reveals that more than 18 million people with HIV are currently taking ART, and a similar number is still unable to access treatment, the majority of which are unaware of their HIV positive status. Today, 40% of all people with HIV (over 14 million) remain unaware of their status. Many of these are people at higher risk of HIV infection who often find it difficult to access existing testing services.

    “Millions of people with HIV are still missing out on life-saving treatment, which can also prevent HIV transmission to others,” said Dr Margaret Chan, WHO Director-General. “HIV self-testing should open the door for many more people to know their HIV status and find out how to get treatment and access prevention services.”HIV self-testing means people can use oral fluid or blood- finger-pricks to discover their status in a private and convenient setting. Results are ready within 20 minutes or less. Those with positive results are advised to seek confirmatory tests at health clinics. WHO recommends they receive information and links to counselling as well as rapid referral to prevention, treatment and care services.

    HIV self-testing is a way to reach more people with undiagnosed HIV and represents a step forward to empower individuals, diagnose people earlier before they become sick, bring services closer to where people live, and create demand for HIV testing. This is particularly important for those people facing barriers to accessing existing services.

    Between 2005 and 2015 the proportion of people with HIV learning of their status increased from 12% to 60% globally. This increase in HIV testing uptake worldwide has led to more than 80% of all people diagnosed with HIV receiving ART.

    31. Lack of access to HIV testing services may lead to:
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    Explanation

    A – In the second paragraph, we are told that of those who are ‘unaware of their status’, many are at higher risk of HIV infection. However this does not mean that the lack of testing is causing this, only that the 2 groups overlap.

    B – In paragraph 4, we are told that better access to testing leads to earlier diagnosis (before getting sick). It is safe to infer that the opposite must be true – lack of testing will lead to slower diagnosis.

    C – ‘AIDS’ is not mentioned in the passage, and therefore we do not know anything about it, or how testing leads to its development.

    D – On the contrary, the 4th paragraph says that this may be a result of tesing, not a result of lack of testing.

    Post Comment

    New HIV Guidelines

    According to a new WHO progress report lack of an HIV diagnosis is a major obstacle to implementing the Organization’s recommendation that everyone with HIV should be offered antiretroviral therapy (ART).

    The report reveals that more than 18 million people with HIV are currently taking ART, and a similar number is still unable to access treatment, the majority of which are unaware of their HIV positive status. Today, 40% of all people with HIV (over 14 million) remain unaware of their status. Many of these are people at higher risk of HIV infection who often find it difficult to access existing testing services.

    “Millions of people with HIV are still missing out on life-saving treatment, which can also prevent HIV transmission to others,” said Dr Margaret Chan, WHO Director-General. “HIV self-testing should open the door for many more people to know their HIV status and find out how to get treatment and access prevention services.”HIV self-testing means people can use oral fluid or blood- finger-pricks to discover their status in a private and convenient setting. Results are ready within 20 minutes or less. Those with positive results are advised to seek confirmatory tests at health clinics. WHO recommends they receive information and links to counselling as well as rapid referral to prevention, treatment and care services.

    HIV self-testing is a way to reach more people with undiagnosed HIV and represents a step forward to empower individuals, diagnose people earlier before they become sick, bring services closer to where people live, and create demand for HIV testing. This is particularly important for those people facing barriers to accessing existing services.

    Between 2005 and 2015 the proportion of people with HIV learning of their status increased from 12% to 60% globally. This increase in HIV testing uptake worldwide has led to more than 80% of all people diagnosed with HIV receiving ART.

    32. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true?
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    Explanation

    A – We are told that HIV self-testing is ‘particularly important for those people facing barriers to accessing existing services’ – however this does not correspond to being more economically viable.

    B – In the 2nd paragraph, we are told that ‘today, 40% of all people with HIV (over 14 million) remain unaware of their status’. If we do 14 / 0.4, this gives us 35 million people who have HIV.

    C – From 12% to 60% is a fivefold increase, however this is in the number of people learning of their status, not of those who receive ART.

    D – At the beginning of the second paragraph, we are told that 18 million people receive ART and ‘a similar number is still unable to access treatment’. We have no way of knowing if this similar number is higher or lower than 18 million.

    Post Comment

    A Nap a Day keeps the Doctor Away

    The effect of napping on memory consolidation is also influenced by how often it takes place. Milner, Fogel and Cote (2006) found that following a 20-minute nap, those who napped habitually (i.e. more than twice a week) improved more on a procedural motor learning task after a nap than those who only napped non-habitually (i.e. less than twice a month).

    These results are corroborated with the previously discussed study by Kurdziel et al. (2013), where children who napped habitually had the greatest benefit in declarative memory performance. One flaw of the study by Milner et al. (2006), is that napping behaviour was decided based on frequency of naps rather than preference, as adults may be habitual nappers but may not have the time to do so.

    Nonetheless, it could also be argued that the participants were students and so did have sufficient time to carry out their desired napping preference. Looking at nap desirability, research by Evans et al. (1977) found that there were differences in nap infrastructure in appetitive nappers (nap unrelated to sleep need), replacement nappers (nap when tired) and sporadic nappers. Dinges, Orne EC, Orne MT and Evans (1980) carried out a replication study following on from this research, and found that appetitive nappers had greater stage 1 sleep and more stage changes than a group of non-nappers.

    The variation in how often people take naps, and the reasons for it could therefore have an impact on memory consolidation, as differing sleep composition has shown to be an influence.

    33. Various types of nappers are mentioned in the passage. Which of these are not a type of napper?
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    Explanation

    C-Half way through the passage, we are told that Evans found variation in certain types of nappers, including appetitive, replacement and sporadic nappers. Frequent nappers are not mentioned at all in the passage.

    Post Comment

    A Nap a Day keeps the Doctor Away

    The effect of napping on memory consolidation is also influenced by how often it takes place. Milner, Fogel and Cote (2006) found that following a 20-minute nap, those who napped habitually (i.e. more than twice a week) improved more on a procedural motor learning task after a nap than those who only napped non-habitually (i.e. less than twice a month).

    These results are corroborated with the previously discussed study by Kurdziel et al. (2013), where children who napped habitually had the greatest benefit in declarative memory performance. One flaw of the study by Milner et al. (2006), is that napping behaviour was decided based on frequency of naps rather than preference, as adults may be habitual nappers but may not have the time to do so.

    Nonetheless, it could also be argued that the participants were students and so did have sufficient time to carry out their desired napping preference. Looking at nap desirability, research by Evans et al. (1977) found that there were differences in nap infrastructure in appetitive nappers (nap unrelated to sleep need), replacement nappers (nap when tired) and sporadic nappers. Dinges, Orne EC, Orne MT and Evans (1980) carried out a replication study following on from this research, and found that appetitive nappers had greater stage 1 sleep and more stage changes than a group of non-nappers.

    The variation in how often people take naps, and the reasons for it could therefore have an impact on memory consolidation, as differing sleep composition has shown to be an influence.

    34. Napping has been studied by various different researchers. Which of the following study author is not mentioned in the passage?
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    Explanation

    B-There is no mention of the name ‘Burgess’ in the passage.

    Post Comment

    A Nap a Day keeps the Doctor Away

    The effect of napping on memory consolidation is also influenced by how often it takes place. Milner, Fogel and Cote (2006) found that following a 20-minute nap, those who napped habitually (i.e. more than twice a week) improved more on a procedural motor learning task after a nap than those who only napped non-habitually (i.e. less than twice a month).

    These results are corroborated with the previously discussed study by Kurdziel et al. (2013), where children who napped habitually had the greatest benefit in declarative memory performance. One flaw of the study by Milner et al. (2006), is that napping behaviour was decided based on frequency of naps rather than preference, as adults may be habitual nappers but may not have the time to do so.

    Nonetheless, it could also be argued that the participants were students and so did have sufficient time to carry out their desired napping preference. Looking at nap desirability, research by Evans et al. (1977) found that there were differences in nap infrastructure in appetitive nappers (nap unrelated to sleep need), replacement nappers (nap when tired) and sporadic nappers. Dinges, Orne EC, Orne MT and Evans (1980) carried out a replication study following on from this research, and found that appetitive nappers had greater stage 1 sleep and more stage changes than a group of non-nappers.

    The variation in how often people take naps, and the reasons for it could therefore have an impact on memory consolidation, as differing sleep composition has shown to be an influence.

    35. Which of these was a potential weakness in the study by Milner et al. (2006)?
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    Explanation

    This is a type 1 statement question, and searching for the keyword of ‘Milner’ we find that ‘one flaw of the study . . . is that napping behaviour was decided based on frequency of naps rather than preference’.

    A – This presents a counter-argument to the weakness of not being based on inclination for napping

    B – Describes naps not being based on inclination, which is a synonym for preference. Therefore is the correct answer.

    C – ‘Variation’ is mentioned in the last few lines, and is not related to the Milner study.

    D – ‘Sleep composition’ is highlighted in the final line, which is not related to the Milner study.

    Post Comment

    A Nap a Day keeps the Doctor Away

    The effect of napping on memory consolidation is also influenced by how often it takes place. Milner, Fogel and Cote (2006) found that following a 20-minute nap, those who napped habitually (i.e. more than twice a week) improved more on a procedural motor learning task after a nap than those who only napped non-habitually (i.e. less than twice a month).

    These results are corroborated with the previously discussed study by Kurdziel et al. (2013), where children who napped habitually had the greatest benefit in declarative memory performance. One flaw of the study by Milner et al. (2006), is that napping behaviour was decided based on frequency of naps rather than preference, as adults may be habitual nappers but may not have the time to do so.

    Nonetheless, it could also be argued that the participants were students and so did have sufficient time to carry out their desired napping preference. Looking at nap desirability, research by Evans et al. (1977) found that there were differences in nap infrastructure in appetitive nappers (nap unrelated to sleep need), replacement nappers (nap when tired) and sporadic nappers. Dinges, Orne EC, Orne MT and Evans (1980) carried out a replication study following on from this research, and found that appetitive nappers had greater stage 1 sleep and more stage changes than a group of non-nappers.

    The variation in how often people take naps, and the reasons for it could therefore have an impact on memory consolidation, as differing sleep composition has shown to be an influence.

    36. Different nappers have different styles of sleeping. Which of these is the correct number of naps for a habitual napper?
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    Explanation

    B-Using the keyword ‘habitual napper’, we are told on the third line ‘those that napped habitually (i.e. more than twice a week)’ and therefore the answer is B.

    Post Comment
    Radhe Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 13 Aug 2020 18:02:44

    The passage states habitual sleeps sleep more than twice a week not twice a week.

    Muna Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 28 Jan 2021 00:24:20

    Also agree that the passage states "more than twice a week", so the correct answer should be C and not B! This should be corrected.

    A2n001 – The Future

    The A2n 001 was an experimental Diesel railcar built in Italy by CaFiCi consortium in 1982. Despite a long test period in several regional lines, the vehicle never came into regular service.

    The railcar was designed taking advantage of the experience developed in the construction of 2-decks vehicles gained in Italy by the Casaralta workshops (Bologna) in building railways carriages derived from those in service on the Parisian “banlieue” and supplied to Ferrovie Nord Milano and Ferrovie dello Stato companies. The vehicles were built under CIMT Lorraine (a French firm) license.

    The experiment was focused on the research on a lightweight vehicle with higher capacity than railcars used at that time. The objective was to provide regional and branch lines with such vehicles, with an offer estimated at about 40-50% more passengers than equivalent traditional railcars, despite the “low power consumption and a saving of about 20% in investment and running costs”. It was designed a curious double-decker railcar reminiscent of the similar coaches of the time. The vehicle was built by a company called Cafici International, with headquarters in Geneva.

    The engine was supplied by Fiat (IVECO 828 SRI engine 4-stroke, 8-cylinder V) and installed in only one in every two carriages, which were derived from those equipped on the double-decker coaches then being delivered by Casaralta, with secondary air suspension and brake discs and mixed strains.

    The arrangement of each carriage space was such as to create in practice four distinct rooms: the two vestibules, allowing access to the high and low rooms, a capacity of 17 each, and the two central decks, with an upper and lower deck, with a capacity of 60 and 48 respectively.

    37. A2n 001 railcar was an experimental project, which:
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    Explanation

    A – We are told it ‘never came into regular service’ in the first paragraph, however there is no reasoning given for this, anywhere in the passage.

    B – The keyword of ‘engine’ will lead us to the 5th paragraph, where we are told it was supplied by Fiat, and then some other technical information. At no point are we told that it is similar to regular cars. Assuming this because of Fiat would be using external knowledge, and making too big an assumption.

    C – This is highlighted in the 3rd paragraph, where we are told it aimed to offer ‘about 40-50% more passengers than equivalent traditional railcars’.

    D – We are not told about it being tested in any other country, other than Italy. In fact, we are told there was a ‘long test period in several regional lines’ – we could infer that regional lines means it didn’t cross a country border.

    Post Comment

    A2n001 – The Future

    The A2n 001 was an experimental Diesel railcar built in Italy by CaFiCi consortium in 1982. Despite a long test period in several regional lines, the vehicle never came into regular service.

    The railcar was designed taking advantage of the experience developed in the construction of 2-decks vehicles gained in Italy by the Casaralta workshops (Bologna) in building railways carriages derived from those in service on the Parisian “banlieue” and supplied to Ferrovie Nord Milano and Ferrovie dello Stato companies. The vehicles were built under CIMT Lorraine (a French firm) license.

    The experiment was focused on the research on a lightweight vehicle with higher capacity than railcars used at that time. The objective was to provide regional and branch lines with such vehicles, with an offer estimated at about 40-50% more passengers than equivalent traditional railcars, despite the “low power consumption and a saving of about 20% in investment and running costs”. It was designed a curious double-decker railcar reminiscent of the similar coaches of the time. The vehicle was built by a company called Cafici International, with headquarters in Geneva.

    The engine was supplied by Fiat (IVECO 828 SRI engine 4-stroke, 8-cylinder V) and installed in only one in every two carriages, which were derived from those equipped on the double-decker coaches then being delivered by Casaralta, with secondary air suspension and brake discs and mixed strains.

    The arrangement of each carriage space was such as to create in practice four distinct rooms: the two vestibules, allowing access to the high and low rooms, a capacity of 17 each, and the two central decks, with an upper and lower deck, with a capacity of 60 and 48 respectively.

    38. Inspiration for the project came from numerous sources. Features of A2n 001 were directly derived from the following, except:
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    Explanation

    A – This is confirmed at the beginning of the 2nd paragraph, where we are told ‘the railcar was designed taking advantage of the experience developed in the construction of 2-decks vehicles gained in Italy by the Casaralta workshops’. This suggests that experience was used, and therefore features were directly derived from this.

    B – Whilst these vehicles were the inspiration of Casaralta’s vehicles, as explained in the 2nd paragraph, this doesn’t confirm that it was a direct inspiration for A2n 001, instead it seems to be one step removed. Therefore this is the correct answer.

    C – The comparison to traditional railcars is the focus of the 3rd paragraph, highlighting some features were due to the traditional features of double deckers.

    D – The 5th paragraph tells us that the engine was inspired by these double decker coaches.   

    Post Comment

    A2n001 – The Future

    The A2n 001 was an experimental Diesel railcar built in Italy by CaFiCi consortium in 1982. Despite a long test period in several regional lines, the vehicle never came into regular service.

    The railcar was designed taking advantage of the experience developed in the construction of 2-decks vehicles gained in Italy by the Casaralta workshops (Bologna) in building railways carriages derived from those in service on the Parisian “banlieue” and supplied to Ferrovie Nord Milano and Ferrovie dello Stato companies. The vehicles were built under CIMT Lorraine (a French firm) license.

    The experiment was focused on the research on a lightweight vehicle with higher capacity than railcars used at that time. The objective was to provide regional and branch lines with such vehicles, with an offer estimated at about 40-50% more passengers than equivalent traditional railcars, despite the “low power consumption and a saving of about 20% in investment and running costs”. It was designed a curious double-decker railcar reminiscent of the similar coaches of the time. The vehicle was built by a company called Cafici International, with headquarters in Geneva.

    The engine was supplied by Fiat (IVECO 828 SRI engine 4-stroke, 8-cylinder V) and installed in only one in every two carriages, which were derived from those equipped on the double-decker coaches then being delivered by Casaralta, with secondary air suspension and brake discs and mixed strains.

    The arrangement of each carriage space was such as to create in practice four distinct rooms: the two vestibules, allowing access to the high and low rooms, a capacity of 17 each, and the two central decks, with an upper and lower deck, with a capacity of 60 and 48 respectively.

    39. Which license were these railcars built on?
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    Explanation

    C-Using the keyword ‘licence’, we find this at the end of the second paragraph. We are told that ‘such vehicles were built under CIMT Lorraine (a French firm) license’. Therefore the answer here is C.

    Post Comment

    A2n001 – The Future

    The A2n 001 was an experimental Diesel railcar built in Italy by CaFiCi consortium in 1982. Despite a long test period in several regional lines, the vehicle never came into regular service.

    The railcar was designed taking advantage of the experience developed in the construction of 2-decks vehicles gained in Italy by the Casaralta workshops (Bologna) in building railways carriages derived from those in service on the Parisian “banlieue” and supplied to Ferrovie Nord Milano and Ferrovie dello Stato companies. The vehicles were built under CIMT Lorraine (a French firm) license.

    The experiment was focused on the research on a lightweight vehicle with higher capacity than railcars used at that time. The objective was to provide regional and branch lines with such vehicles, with an offer estimated at about 40-50% more passengers than equivalent traditional railcars, despite the “low power consumption and a saving of about 20% in investment and running costs”. It was designed a curious double-decker railcar reminiscent of the similar coaches of the time. The vehicle was built by a company called Cafici International, with headquarters in Geneva.

    The engine was supplied by Fiat (IVECO 828 SRI engine 4-stroke, 8-cylinder V) and installed in only one in every two carriages, which were derived from those equipped on the double-decker coaches then being delivered by Casaralta, with secondary air suspension and brake discs and mixed strains.

    The arrangement of each carriage space was such as to create in practice four distinct rooms: the two vestibules, allowing access to the high and low rooms, a capacity of 17 each, and the two central decks, with an upper and lower deck, with a capacity of 60 and 48 respectively.

    40. Railcars are often thought of as passengers capacity carried per engine. What was this meant to be for A2n 001?
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    Explanation

    B-The final paragraph tells us the number of passengers per carriage is 17 for each of the 2 vestibules (34 total) and 60 for the upper deck, and 48 for the lower deck. This gives a total of 142. However we were told in the previous paragraph that there would be one engine per two carriages, and so we must double this number to give 284 passengers per engine.

    Post Comment

    Elephant Sanctuaries

    Elephants have been used by humans to perform a variety of tasks for around 5000 years, but while people have consistently profited, this relationship has not been greatly beneficial to the elephants. Revered throughout Thailand, elephants have greatly influenced Thai culture, myth, and religion, though the deep respect held for the species is unfortunately not often reflected in the treatment of individual elephants.

    Widespread abuse, poaching, deforestation of green spaces, increased tourism, farming, and a vast reduction in habitat have all contributed to a rapid decline in elephant numbers, and Asian elephants are now officially an endangered species. It is estimated that at the turn of the century, Asian elephants numbered approximately 100,000 in Thailand alone (and likely in the millions globally).

    Currently the worldwide population has decreased to around 30,000. Of these, only 2500-4000 live in Thailand, and most of those live in captivity near metropolitan areas. Unfortunately, increases in the human population tend to lead to reductions in the number of living elephants. The main reasons for this are because of poaching, habitat loss, and increased tourism. Current estimates for 1kg of ivory on the black market in China (the worlds largest market for illegal ivory sales) is around $3000 US Dollars. Due to their high intelligence, it is possible to train elephants to perform a broad array of tasks, from hauling logs to painting.

    This adaptability and aptitude, coupled with their immense size and strength, meant elephants were naturally seen as ideal work animals. Historically, they have been utilised by logging companies to haul lumber, but widespread deforestation has caused legal logging to officially cease throughout Thailand. Sadly, logging camp elephants in the north of the country were forced by humans to contribute to the destruction of their own habitat, and deforestation is now one of the major threats to elephant survival.

    41. The relationship between elephants and humans has been a longstanding one, which:
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    Explanation

    A – the first line tells us “that this relationship has not been greatly beneficial to the elephants”, and therefore we know this statement is not true.

    B – The end of the first paragraph confirms that elephants are endangered, but there is nothing to say that they will go extinct. Humans have caused them to become endangered, but not necessarily into extinction. The fact they ‘will go extinct’ is extreme language in this statement. 

    C – The middle of the first paragraph confirms the ‘deep respect held for the species is unfortunately not often reflected in the treatment of individual elephants’, which supports this statement, meaning it is true.

    D – This is an extreme statement. We know humans have benefitted from elephants, however we do not know that it has ‘always’ led to benefit.

    Post Comment

    Elephant Sanctuaries

    Elephants have been used by humans to perform a variety of tasks for around 5000 years, but while people have consistently profited, this relationship has not been greatly beneficial to the elephants. Revered throughout Thailand, elephants have greatly influenced Thai culture, myth, and religion, though the deep respect held for the species is unfortunately not often reflected in the treatment of individual elephants.

    Widespread abuse, poaching, deforestation of green spaces, increased tourism, farming, and a vast reduction in habitat have all contributed to a rapid decline in elephant numbers, and Asian elephants are now officially an endangered species. It is estimated that at the turn of the century, Asian elephants numbered approximately 100,000 in Thailand alone (and likely in the millions globally).

    Currently the worldwide population has decreased to around 30,000. Of these, only 2500-4000 live in Thailand, and most of those live in captivity near metropolitan areas. Unfortunately, increases in the human population tend to lead to reductions in the number of living elephants. The main reasons for this are because of poaching, habitat loss, and increased tourism. Current estimates for 1kg of ivory on the black market in China (the worlds largest market for illegal ivory sales) is around $3000 US Dollars. Due to their high intelligence, it is possible to train elephants to perform a broad array of tasks, from hauling logs to painting.

    This adaptability and aptitude, coupled with their immense size and strength, meant elephants were naturally seen as ideal work animals. Historically, they have been utilised by logging companies to haul lumber, but widespread deforestation has caused legal logging to officially cease throughout Thailand. Sadly, logging camp elephants in the north of the country were forced by humans to contribute to the destruction of their own habitat, and deforestation is now one of the major threats to elephant survival.

    42. There are numerous different locations that the remaining elephants are present in. Which of the following is a description of where elephants have lived at one point or another?
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    Explanation

    A – ‘Northern’ is a good keyword, and we find this in the last paragraph. Here, we are told ‘logging camp elephants in the north of the country were forced by humans to contribute to the destruction of their own habitat’. Since elephants that contributed to deforestation destroyed their own habitat, we can assume that they lived within the green spaces that were torn down. In the first paragraph, we are told that the deforestation was specifically of green spaces.

    B – At the end of the second paragraph, we are told that some ‘live in captivity near metropolitan areas’, however this does not specify if captivity means zoo. We cannot assume this association, so this statement cannot be correct.

    C – There is no mention of Africa throughout, so this statement cannot be correct.

    D – ‘China’ is mentioned as a place for ivory trade on the black market. However, this does not confirm that elephants ever lived in China. 

    Post Comment

    Elephant Sanctuaries

    Elephants have been used by humans to perform a variety of tasks for around 5000 years, but while people have consistently profited, this relationship has not been greatly beneficial to the elephants. Revered throughout Thailand, elephants have greatly influenced Thai culture, myth, and religion, though the deep respect held for the species is unfortunately not often reflected in the treatment of individual elephants.

    Widespread abuse, poaching, deforestation of green spaces, increased tourism, farming, and a vast reduction in habitat have all contributed to a rapid decline in elephant numbers, and Asian elephants are now officially an endangered species. It is estimated that at the turn of the century, Asian elephants numbered approximately 100,000 in Thailand alone (and likely in the millions globally).

    Currently the worldwide population has decreased to around 30,000. Of these, only 2500-4000 live in Thailand, and most of those live in captivity near metropolitan areas. Unfortunately, increases in the human population tend to lead to reductions in the number of living elephants. The main reasons for this are because of poaching, habitat loss, and increased tourism. Current estimates for 1kg of ivory on the black market in China (the worlds largest market for illegal ivory sales) is around $3000 US Dollars. Due to their high intelligence, it is possible to train elephants to perform a broad array of tasks, from hauling logs to painting.

    This adaptability and aptitude, coupled with their immense size and strength, meant elephants were naturally seen as ideal work animals. Historically, they have been utilised by logging companies to haul lumber, but widespread deforestation has caused legal logging to officially cease throughout Thailand. Sadly, logging camp elephants in the north of the country were forced by humans to contribute to the destruction of their own habitat, and deforestation is now one of the major threats to elephant survival.

    43. Elephants have been used as animals of labour. The following are reasons for this, except:
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    Explanation

    A-The 4th paragraph describes reasons that elephants are prided as work animals, and this includes intelligence, adaptability and size. Ivory is mentioned earlier, as something that elephants are poached for – and therefore this is not a reason they are used for labour.

    Post Comment

    Elephant Sanctuaries

    Elephants have been used by humans to perform a variety of tasks for around 5000 years, but while people have consistently profited, this relationship has not been greatly beneficial to the elephants. Revered throughout Thailand, elephants have greatly influenced Thai culture, myth, and religion, though the deep respect held for the species is unfortunately not often reflected in the treatment of individual elephants.

    Widespread abuse, poaching, deforestation of green spaces, increased tourism, farming, and a vast reduction in habitat have all contributed to a rapid decline in elephant numbers, and Asian elephants are now officially an endangered species. It is estimated that at the turn of the century, Asian elephants numbered approximately 100,000 in Thailand alone (and likely in the millions globally).

    Currently the worldwide population has decreased to around 30,000. Of these, only 2500-4000 live in Thailand, and most of those live in captivity near metropolitan areas. Unfortunately, increases in the human population tend to lead to reductions in the number of living elephants. The main reasons for this are because of poaching, habitat loss, and increased tourism. Current estimates for 1kg of ivory on the black market in China (the worlds largest market for illegal ivory sales) is around $3000 US Dollars. Due to their high intelligence, it is possible to train elephants to perform a broad array of tasks, from hauling logs to painting.

    This adaptability and aptitude, coupled with their immense size and strength, meant elephants were naturally seen as ideal work animals. Historically, they have been utilised by logging companies to haul lumber, but widespread deforestation has caused legal logging to officially cease throughout Thailand. Sadly, logging camp elephants in the north of the country were forced by humans to contribute to the destruction of their own habitat, and deforestation is now one of the major threats to elephant survival.

    44. Which of the following best describes how the author feels towards the endangerment of elephants?
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    Explanation

    A – There is nothing to suggest that the author fears their endangerment, instead it appears the author is quite aware of this prospect.

    B – The author doesn’t talk about the endangerment positively, and doesn’t seem to suggest it will get better anytime soon.

    C – The last paragraph the author says that ‘sadly’ elephants were used to destroy their own habitat. The third paragraph also uses the word ‘unfortunately’ before describing their falling population. This suggests the author pities them and therefore feels sympathetic towards their situation.

    D – Whilst the author holds humanity accountable for the elephants endangerment, there is nothing to suggest that they feel personally responsible at all.

    Post Comment

    Verbal Reasoning Review Screen

    Instructions

    Below is a summary of your answers. You can review your questions in three (3) different ways.

    The buttons in the lower right-hand corner correspond to these choices:

    1. Review all of your questions and answers.
    2. Review questions that are incomplete.
    3. Review questions that are flagged for review. (Click the 'flag' icon to change the flag for review status.)

    You may also click on a question number to link directly to its location in the exam.

    Verbal Reasoning Section

    Decision Making Practice Subtest Instructions

    In the section of the exam, you will be presented with questions that may refer to text, charts or graphs. Additional information may be presented within the question itself. All questions are standalone and do not share data.

    Some questions will have four answer options but only one correct answer; others will require you to respond to five statements by placing a ‘yes’ or ‘no’ answer next to each statement.

    It is in your best interest to answer all questions as there is no penalty for guessing. All unanswered questions will be scored as incorrect.

    Click the Next (N) button to proceed.

    Emmaline is deciding whether to buy a gym membership from Gym A or from Gym B.  Both gyms are open 7 days of the week.  Gym A has free equipment 6 out of 7 days of the week, and Gym B has free equipment 80% of the time.  Gym A has personal trainers 5 days of the week, and Gym B does not have personal trainers 8/28 of the time.

    Q1 Considering only the availability of equipment and presence of personal trainers, should Emmaline get a gym membership at Gym A?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is AJot the information that you know into a table using the ‘same, simple, positive’ rule.  Keep the information in the same and most simple format, looking at the information the question is asking about.  The question asks us to consider only availability of equipment and presence of personal trainers.  Note that for Gym B, we are told the probability of personal trainers not being there, so to find the probability of personal trainers being there, subtract this from 1. 

     

    Gym A

    Gym B

    P(equipment available) = 6/7 = 0.857

    P(equipment available) = 0.80

    P(personal trainers available) = 5/7

    P(personal trainers available) = 20/28 = 5/7

    Both gyms have the same presence of personal trainers, but Gym A has more free equipment than Gym B, so A is the correct answer.  B, and D are incorrect because there is equal personal trainer time at both gyms; C is incorrect because the answer choice says that Emmaline should not get a gym membership at Gym A, though she should, based on the equipment availability.

    Post Comment

    All waitstaff at a restaurant must wear black. Some waitstaff at this restaurant tie their hair back.Some people work part-time at the restaurant. All part-time waitstaff at the restaurant walk to work.

    Q2 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not follow.
    Some waitstaff do not walk to work.
    If a person works at this restaurant, they are wearing black.
    There are full-time and part-time waitstaff at the restaurant.
    If a waiter at this restaurant works part-time, he must walk to work.
    It is possible for a waitress at the restaurant to wear black, tie her hair back, work part-time, and walk to work.
    Yes
    No
    2
    5

    Explanation

    Some waitstaff do not walk to work.

    o   No.  We are told all part-time waitstaff walk to work.  We cannot conclude that others do not walk to work.

    If a person works at this restaurant, they are wearing black. 

    o   No.  We are told that waitstaff wear black, but there may be other people working at the restaurant that are not waitstaff, and these people may not have to wear black.

    There are full-time and part-time waitstaff at the restaurant. 

    o   No.  We are not told anything about waitstaff working full-time.  We know some waitstaff work part-time, however we do not know if any waitstaff work full-time. 

    If a waiter works part-time, he must walk to work.  

    o   Yes.  We are told that all part-time waitstaff at the restaurant work to work.  If a waiter works part-time, he must walk to work.  This conclusion follows.

    It is possible for a waitress at the restaurant to wear black, tie her hair back, work part-time, and walk to work. 

    o   Yes.  All waitstaff wear black.  All part-time waitstaff walk to work.  Some waitstaff tie their hair back.  So, it is possible for a waitress to wear black, work part-time, walk to work, and tie her hair back. 

    Post Comment
    Helen Medicmind Tutor

    Sat, 22 Aug 2020 13:15:23

    This question type does not work as it does in the UCAT mock tests, with the dragging options :(

    bob Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 04 Oct 2020 07:55:25

    "If a waiter works part-time, he must walk to work" is false as it never states that the waiter works for this restaurant, but the question specifies that "All part-time waitstaff at the restaurant walk to work". This whole test is fairly poorly written.

    Should secondary schools be open 6 days a week instead of 5, so that students can learn more content faster and be better prepared for exams?

    Q3
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is CThe key bit of information in this question is ‘learn more content faster and be better prepared for exams.’  We want to know if having a 6-day week will contribute to this, and the arguments represented in an answer choice should relate directly to this in order to be strong.   A and B do not discuss exam preparation or learning content, so are not relevant enough to the question, and are therefore incorrect.  D might seem like a promising argument but does not have any research basis and is a bit speculative, so C is a stronger answer.  This answer choice both addresses exam preparation and learning content and mentions that there is research to back up this claim.

    Post Comment

    Kendrick and Kiara often wear floral tops to university.  There is a 20% chance Kendrick will wear a floral top, and a 1/4 chance that Kiara will wear a floral top.  

    Q4. Is there a greater than 50% chance that at least one of them will wear a floral top to university?
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    Explanation

    The answer is C. To work out the probability of at least one of them wearing a floral top, calculate the probability of neither wearing a floral top and subtract this from 1.  The probability of Kendrick not wearing a floral top is 0.80 and the probability of Kiara not wearing a floral top is 0.75.  The probability of neither of them wearing a floral top is 0.80 x 0.75; 1 – (0.80 x 0.75) = 0.40 (because P(not A) and P(not B) = P(not A) x P(not B)). This is not greater than 50% (0.50), so the answer is No, C.

    Post Comment

    Albie is baking peanut butter cookies for his friend’s birthday.  The recipe calls for 200 g of peanut butter, 175 g of golden caster sugar, ¼ tsp fine salt, and 1 large egg in order to make 16 cookies.  At home, Albie has ½ kg of peanut butter, 355 g of golden caster sugar, 80 tsp of fine salt, and 4 large eggs. 

    Q5. Does Albie have enough ingredients to make 2 batches of cookies?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C. In order to make 2 batches of cookies, multiply the recipe values by 2.  Albie would therefore need 400 g of peanut butter, 350 g golden caster sugar, ½ tsp fine salt, and 2 large eggs.  Albie currently has ½ kg (500 g) of peanut butter, 355 g golden caster sugar, 80 tsp fine salt, and 4 large eggs, so this is just sufficient to make 2 batches of cookies.  He could not make an additional batch because he does not have sufficient golden caster sugar or peanut butter to do so.  Be mindful of units (for peanut butter).

    Post Comment

    Children in a class have a variety of different fruits for snack time. Some children have apples. Some children have strawberries. Some children have blueberries. All children that have blueberries also have strawberries. Some children have all three fruits.

    Q6 Which one of the following diagrams best represents the above information?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. There are three fruits, each represented by a circle. Because we are told that some children have all three fruits, the answer cannot be C or D, as there is no region which accounts for the three circles overlapping.  We are also told that all children that have blueberries have strawberries, which means we need to find a circle that sits completely inside of another circle, which is the case for answer choice A, and not answer choice B.

    Post Comment

    Five friends, Zahra, Marianne, Layla, Sophie, and Jade are planning what to wear to the school dance.  Each friend wears a different coloured gown, and no two friends wear the same shoe.  They wear gowns coloured red, navy, black, gold, and white.  Their shoes are black heels, black flats, red heels, gold heels, and nude flats. 

    Sophie and Zahra both wear black shoes. 

    Jade and Zahra both wear flats, whilst the rest of the girls wear heels. 

    Marianne wears red heels and a black gown. 

    Only Layla wears a gown and shoes of the same colour. 

    Q7 Which of the following must be true?
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    Explanation

     The correct answer is B.  Begin slotting information into a table based on the points provided. 

     

    Shoe

    Gown

    Zahra

    Black heels

     

    Marianne

    Red heels

    Black

    Layla

    Gold heels

    Gold

    Sophie

    Black flats

     

    Jade

    Nude flats

     

    The only one of the answer choices that can be concluded with certainty from the given information is B.  The others are all possible, but not certain.

    Post Comment
    zohra Medicmind Tutor

    Sat, 29 Aug 2020 11:12:46

    in the question it says zahra wears black and flat, but in the answeer it is says zahra wears black high hells

    The following information is given for Year 12 students at a school.  Students can take one or two languages. 

    20 people study Spanish.

    40 people study French.

    15 people study German.

    No one studies both German and Spanish. 

    6 students study exactly two languages.

    Twice the number of students that study French and German study French and Spanish.

    Q8 How many students study German only?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C We are told that the number of students taking French and Spanish (p) is twice the number of students taking French and German (q).  So p = 2q.  We also know that 6 students take 2 languages and the only combinations of these are French & German or Spanish & French (no students take German & Spanish).  So, p + q = 6.  Substituting p = 2q into the above equation, we get 2q + q = 6, so 3q = 6.  From this, we can deduce that q = 2.  So, 2 people take French & German.  The number of people taking German overall is 15, so the number of people taking only German is 15 – 2 = 13. 

     

    Post Comment

    At a particular office, cubicles are aligned in rows of six.  Colleagues Abi, Benji, Chloe, Deirdre, Esteban, and Flora sit in cubicles in one row of the office.

    Abi sits next to only one other person, Esteban.

    Exactly two people sit in between Benji and Chloe. 

    Esteban and Chloe sit equidistant from Deirdre.

    Flora sits adjacent to Chloe.

    Q9 Which of the following could represent the arrangement of the office cubicles?
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    Explanation

     B is the correct answer. From the first point, we know that Abi must sit at the end, because he sits next to only one other person.  We also know that Abi sits beside Esteban from this point.  This eliminates answer choice D.  Because we know where Abi and Esteban sit, choose the next statement that talks about the relation between others and either Abi or Esteban.  Point three tells us that Esteban and Chloe sit equidistant from Deirdre, which means that Deirdre sits in between Esteban and Chloe, which eliminates answer choice D.  If Deirdre were directly next to Esteban, Chloe would have to be directly next to Deirdre (they sit equidistant from Deirdre), Flora would have to sit directly next to Chloe (Flora sits adjacent to Chloe), and Benji would be at the end.  This correlates to answer choice A, but does not account for two people sitting in between Benji and Chloe (there is only one, Flora).  This eliminates answer choice A.  B is correct because it is the only seating combination that satisfies all of the given information.

    Post Comment

    The graph below depicts environmental data in the years leading up to 2020.

     

    Q10 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not follow.
    Around 10,000 years ago, there were similar amounts of solar radiation and CH4 in the Earth’s atmosphere.
    In the years following, there has never been as high a CH4 concentration on Earth’s atmosphere as there was 125,000 years ago.
    There has been a steady decrease in the solar radiation intensity over the last 10,000 years.
    There is an overall increase in both solar radiation intensity and concentration of CH4 over the course of 250,000 years.
    Values of CH4 over the last 250,000 years range from 200 to 900 ppb.
    Yes
    No
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    Explanation

    • Around 10,000 years ago, there were similar amounts of solar radiation and CH4 in the Earth’s atmosphere.

    o   No.  10,000 years ago is represented by the first tick mark before 0 (2020), at which point there is about 500 watts/m2 of solar radiation intensity and 700 ppb of CH4 in the atmosphere.  Because of both the different units and no provided conversion, we cannot compare these two values so we cannot say they are similar. 

    • In the years following, there has never been as high a CH4 concentration on Earth’s atmosphere as there was 125,000 years ago. 

    o   Yes.  After 125,000 years ago, all levels of CH4 concentration (indicated by the dotted line) were lower than the 525 watts/m2, which is the value given for 125,000 years ago. 

    • There has been a steady decrease in the solar radiation intensity over the last 10,000 years.

    o   Yes. The dotted line decreases over the last 10,000 years, so this conclusion follows.    

    • There is an overall increase in both solar radiation intensity and concentration of CH4 over the course of 250,000 years. 

    o   Yes.  While there might be variations (increases and decreases in each of the variables over the entire time course), the beginning of the graph shows values of roughly 465 and 300 for solar radiation intensity and CH4, respectively; the current values are approximately 470 and 750, respectively.  Both of these are increases, so the conclusion follows. 

    • Values of CH4 over the last 250,000 years range from 200 to 900 ppb. 

    o   No.  The lowest CH4 concentration is just below 300 ppb and the highest is just below 800 ppb, so the range is in fact smaller than this.  This conclusion does not follow.  

    Post Comment

    Should emergency departments at hospitals only accept appointments as opposed to walk-ins in order to have shorter waiting times for patients?

    Q11
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.  The key bit of information for this question is a want for shorter waiting times for patients, particularly in emergency departments.  A does not reference the emergency department in particular, so is not relevant enough to be the strongest argument.  B does not talk about waiting times for patients, so is not relevant enough to be the strongest argument.  C presents a valid point but does not specifically discuss patient wait times.  D is the correct answer because it discusses wait times specifically for the emergency department and provides the strongest argument.

    Post Comment

    Every second in the UK, £500 is spent towards the purchase of snack foods.  Only 8% of people in the UK report no snacking or very infrequent snacking.  90% of snack consumers snack multiple times per day, including 7% who tend to forego meals altogether and have several snacks throughout the day.   Half of UK snack consumers believe that snacking is essential due to working full-time; 64% overall say that snacks help to keep their energy levels up through the course of the day. 

    Q12 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not follow.
    The average person in the UK spends £500 on snacks per second.
    Exactly half of UK snack consumers work full-time.
    83% of snack consumers in the UK have both meals and multiple snacks throughout the course of the day.
    Some use snacking as a replacement for having meals.
    The majority of the UK consumes snacks during the day.
    Yes
    No
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    Explanation

    •   The average person in the UK spends £500 on snacks per second.

    o   No.  Overall in the UK, £500 is spent on snacks per second.  This is not true for the average individual in the UK. 

    •   Exactly half of UK snack consumers work full-time. 

    o   No.  Half of UK snack consumers believe that snacking is essential because they work full-time.  Amongst the other half, we do not know how many work full-time, or believe snacking is essential because of this. 

    •   83% of snack consumers in the UK have both meals and multiple snacks throughout the course of the day.

    o   Yes.  90% of snack consumers snack multiple times a day.  Of these, 7% have snacks and no meals.  This means that 83% (90 – 7) of snack consumers have multiple snacks and meals.  (Think of this as a Venn diagram question.)

    •   Some use snacking as a replacement for having meals. 

    o   Yes.  We are told that 7% forego meals and have several snacks throughout the day instead.  This means that some people use snacking as a replacement for having meals. 

    •   The majority of the UK consumes snacks during the day.    

    o   Yes.  Only 8% of people in the UK do not snack (or have very infrequent snacks), which means the rest (92%) consume snacks.  This is a majority, so the conclusion follows.

    Post Comment

    Alcohol consumption whilst taking many medications is not recommended.  In particular, its consumption while on a course of antibiotics is cautioned against.  This is because it increases the likelihood of experiencing antibiotic side effects.  If consuming alcohol whilst taking certain antibiotics, a patient may experience antibiotic side effects such as nausea, vomiting, headache, flushing, fast heart rate, and stomach cramping.  Even alcohol consumption up to three days following an antibiotic course can result in these side effects.  Alcohol consumption alone can cause a number of negative effects on the body, hence why its use is cautioned while taking medications which also affect the body in many ways. 

    Q13 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not follow.
    Brian is currently on a course of antibiotics and is experiencing nausea, vomiting, stomach cramping, and a headache. He is most likely consuming alcohol simultaneously.
    Brian has completed a course of antibiotics yesterday and consumes a large quantity of alcohol. It is very unlikely for him to now experience fast heart rate as a side effect of having the antibiotics.
    Alcohol consumption on its own can cause nausea and vomiting.
    Alcohol consumption with other non-antibiotic medication results in an increased likelihood of side effects.
    It is possible for Brian to consume alcohol throughout his course of antibiotics and not experience nausea, vomiting, headache, flushing, fast heart rate, or stomach cramping.
    Yes
    No
    0
    0

    Explanation

    • Brian is currently on a course of antibiotics and is experiencing nausea, vomiting, stomach cramping, and a headache.  He is most likely consuming alcohol simultaneously.

    o   No.  We are told that alcohol consumption only increases the likelihood of experiencing these side effects, meaning that it is possible that these side effects can also arise on their own, independent to alcohol consumption. 

    • Brian has completed a course of antibiotics yesterday and consumes a large quantity of alcohol.  It is very unlikely for him to now experience fast heart rate as a side effect of having the antibiotics. 

    o   No.  We are told that alcohol consumption up to three days following an antibiotic course can result in these side effects.  One day is less than three days, so these side effects are still likely if consuming alcohol shortly after the antibiotic course. 

    • Alcohol consumption on its own can cause nausea and vomiting.

    o   No.  We are told that alcohol consumption alone can cause a number of negative effects on the body, but we are not told what these are.  So, this conclusion does not follow.  

    • Alcohol consumption with other non-antibiotic medication results in an increased likelihood of side effects.

    o   No.  We are told that alcohol consumption whilst on antibiotics results in an increased likelihood of side effects, however we are not told this explicitly about other medication.  We are only told that its use is sometimes not recommended but are not told why, therefore this conclusion does not follow.

    • It is possible for Brian to consume alcohol throughout his course of antibiotics and not experience nausea, vomiting, headache, flushing, fast heart rate, or stomach cramping. 

    o   Yes.  These are possible side effects, which have an increased likelihood of occurring with alcohol consumption.  An increased likelihood does not mean they will always occur.  So, this conclusion does follow.

    Post Comment

    Jacob and Payam are rolling biased dice numbered 1-6. Jacob’s die has a 0.4 chance of rolling a 6, and an equal chance of rolling any other number. Payam’s die rolls odd numbers 7/20 times.

    Q14 Is it true that on their next role, Payam is more likely to roll an even number than Jacob is?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.  The probability of rolling an even number is the probability of rolling 2, 4, or 6.  The probability of Jacob rolling a 6 is 0.4 and the probability of him rolling a 2 is 0.12 (0.6 / 5) and the probability of him rolling a 4 is 0.12 (0.6 / 5).  So, the probability of him rolling even is 0.4 + 0.12 + 0.12 = 0.64.  The probability of Payam rolling even is 1 – the probability of the die rolling odd, or 1 – (7/20) = 13/20 = 0.65.  So, yes, Payam is more likely to roll even, making D the correct answer.  A is incorrect because the probability of Jacob rolling even is incorrect (this is the probability of him rolling a 6 alone).  B and C are incorrect because they say that Payam is less likely to roll an even number than Jacob. 

    Post Comment

    The diagram below refers to patients at a particular hospital.

    Q15 Which of the following is true?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.  There is no overlap between the circle and the star, correlating to hypertension and asthma patients on the cardiac ward respectively, therefore B is the correct answer.  A is incorrect because the correct answer should be A only; F does not include any asthma patients as asthma patients at this hospital are represented by the star.  C is incorrect we don’t know if the patients on the cardiac ward (E) have any other medical conditions, we just know that they do not have hypertension, diabetes, or asthma.  D is incorrect because the circle and the triangle, correlating to hypertension and diabetes respectively, overlap partially but not entirely.  Therefore, some will have diabetes but not all.

    Post Comment

    All vegetables are food. 

    All carrots are vegetables. 

    Some vegetables are orange.

    All vegetables are healthy. 

    All purple foods are healthy.

    Q16 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not follow.
    Flungi is a vegetable, therefore flungi is healthy.
    Some carrots are orange.
    Aubergines are healthy.
    Some orange food is healthy.
    Purple asparagus is a healthy food, so purple asparagus is a vegetable.
    Yes
    No
    0
    0

    Explanation

    • Flungi is a vegetable, therefore flungi is healthy. 

    o   Yes.  All vegetables are healthy, so if flungi is a vegetable, flungi is healthy. 

    • Some carrots are orange.

    o   No.  We are told that carrots are vegetables and some vegetables are orange, but we are not told anything regarding the colour of carrots specifically.

    • Aubergines are healthy. 

    o   No.  We are not given any information about aubergines.  Be careful not to use outside knowledge for this question (in fact, aubergines are purple foods and are vegetables, so this might be true, but we are not given this information). 

    • Some orange food is healthy.

    o   Yes.  All vegetables are healthy, some vegetables are orange, and vegetables are all food.  So, some orange food is healthy. 

    • Purple asparagus is a healthy food, so purple asparagus is a vegetable.

    o   No.  We are told that all purple foods are healthy, so purple asparagus might be a food but not a vegetable. 

     

    Post Comment

    The graph below shows various trading partners of the UK, including 27 EU countries (EU27) and other countries across the globe.  Displayed are the UK’s top trading partners, as per 2015 numbers.  Exports refer to money obtained by goods traded out of the UK, and imports to money obtained by goods traded into the UK.

    Q17 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not follow.
    The UK exports less to China than China exports to the UK.
    The UK exports more to the EU than it does to the next 3 listed countries, combined.
    The UK spends more money on importing goods than it does on the money received by exporting goods with the listed countries.
    The UK imports more items from Norway than it imports from Switzerland.
    USA imports £35291 million worth of goods from the UK.
    Yes
    No
    0
    0

    Explanation

    • The UK exports less to China than China exports to the UK. 

    o   Yes.  There are £36103 million in imports compared to only £18071 million of exports, which means that the UK imports more from China than the UK exports to China.  In other words, the UK exports less to China than China exports to the UK. 

    • The UK exports more to the EU than it does to the next 3 listed countries, combined. 

    o   Yes.  There are £133365 million exports to EU countries, and a total of £85591 (45276 + 18071 + 22244) million exports to USA, China, and Switzerland combined.  133,365 > 85,591, so this conclusion follows.

    • The UK spends more money on importing goods than it does on the money received by exporting goods with the listed countries.

    o   Yes.  There are two ways you can go about this question – compare the overall money spent on imports (410,925 mil) to the overall money gained by exports (304,909 mil).  A quicker way is to look at last row of the balance column, where we are told that exports – imports overall gives a value of -106,016 mil, therefore there are is more money spent on imports in the UK, as per the table. 

    • The UK imports more items from Norway than it imports from Switzerland.  

    o   No.  While the UK gives more money to Norway than it does to Switzerland for imports, we are not given any information about the actual number of items that are imported from either country (or any country, on this table). 

    • USA imports £35291 million worth of goods from the UK. 

    o   No.  This is how much the UK imports from USA, as opposed to the other way around.  Therefore, this conclusion does not follow.  (The USA imports £45276 million worth of goods from the UK.)

    Post Comment

    In order to combat high rates of depression in the elderly, should community living be recommended to older people living on their own?

    Q18
  • 0
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C. There are a few bits of key information in this question – depression incidence, elderly population, and community living.  B is incorrect because it talks about anxiety as opposed to depression.  D is incorrect because the lack of evidence base makes it sound like an opinion as opposed to a fact.  A and C both represent good points, but C is a slightly stronger answer because it talks specifically about the high rates of depression in the elderly, and how community living might specifically combat this.  A does not specifically discuss the elderly population. 

     

    Post Comment

    120 scientists at a conference are presenting original research.  80 of the presenters have presented at conferences before.  Of these 80 people, 50% have presented only at international conferences, and an additional 12.5% have presented at national and international conferences; the rest presented only at national conferences.  30 people not presenting original research are attending the conference as well.  10 of the presenting scientists and 2 of the non-presenting scientists have research in clinical trials; none of these have presented at conferences before. 

    Q19 How many scientists have presented at international conferences or have research in clinical trials, but not both?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.  Draw a Venn diagram to visualise the information, keeping the question in mind (international conference and research in clinical trials).  This way, you’re not working out extra numbers you don’t need to work out.  The number of people who have presented at international conferences is 50 (50% of 80 + 12.5% of 80 = 40 + 10 = 50), and the number of people with research in clinical trials is 12 (10 presenting scientists + 2 non-presenting scientists).  50 (international conferences) + 12 (clinical trials) = 62.  There are no scientists at this conference who have done both.  This question might seem like there is a lot to work out, but in fact, you don’t have to work out all of the numbers; the few that you do have to work out are quite manageable.

    Post Comment

    Identify the diagram that correctly depicts the relation between bald people, people with long hair, people with blonde hair, and people with short pixie haircuts.

    Q20
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    1

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.  Blonde hair can be long, and blonde hair can be in a short pixie cut.  Short pixie haircuts are short hair and therefore are not long, so these circles should not overlap.  Bald people have no hair so this circle shouldn’t overlap any of the rest.  If the circle on the left is people with short pixie haircuts, the circle in the middle is people with blonde hair, and the next circle is people with long hair.  The circle that doesn’t touch the rest is bald people.

    Post Comment

    In City X, there are more bicycles than there are people.  Cycling is the most common form of transportation, followed by car, then train, then foot, followed by any other means.  Many people own their own cycles, but there are also cycles available for rental at various points amongst the city.  These can be returned either to the site of picking up the cycle or to a later point, provided the cycle points are owned by the same company.  These are commonly used by tourists, who usually do not have their own cycle to travel through the city.  When it is raining, most locals still tend to cycle, using raingear as protection; tourists, on the other hand, generally opt to take the train or the bus.

    Q21 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not.
    Everyone in the city owns a bicycle.
    There are multiple bicycle rental companies in City X.
    More people take the train than the bus in City X.
    If a tourist wants to cycle in City X, they always rent a bicycle from a rental company.
    Tourists use the train more than cycling.
    Yes
    No
    0
    0

    Explanation

    • Everyone in the city owns a bicycle.

    o   No.  The passage states ‘many people own their own cycles,’ which implies that some people do not own a bicycle.  This conclusion does not follow.  It would only follow if the passage explicitly stated this, since it is extreme language.

    • There are multiple bicycle rental companies in City X.

    o   Yes.  When the passage says, ‘provided the cycle points are owned by the same company,’ it can be inferred that there are multiple cycle point companies, and therefore at least 2 companies that allow for bicycle rentals. 

    • More people take the train than the bus in City X.

    o   Yes.  In the second sentence, train is listed as a common method of transportation, and bus is not explicitly listed.  We can assume that it is included in ‘any other means’ and therefore less popular than the train in City X. 

    • If a tourist wants to cycle in City X, they always rent a bicycle from a rental company.

    o   No.  The passage says ‘tourists, who usually do not have their own cycle,’ which means that some tourists will have their own cycles so do not have to rent a bicycle in order to cycle in the city. 

    • Tourists use the train more than cycling.

    o   No.  We are told that tourists take the train or the bus more so than cycling when it is raining, however we do not know what tourists’ preferred method of transportation is generally.  So, this conclusion does not follow.

    Post Comment

    All books in a library were purchased new.

    Most books in the bookstore were purchased new.

    Pre-owned books sometimes have wear-and-tear.

    Books are either new or pre-owned. 

    A person can only purchase books from the bookstore or online.

    All books at the library can be borrowed.

    Q22 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not.
    New books must be borrowed.
    New books do not have any wear-and-tear.
    No books at the library can be purchased.
    Pre-owned books are found at bookstores and online.
    If a book is at the bookstore, it cannot be borrowed.
    Yes
    No
    0
    0

    Explanation

    • New books must be borrowed.

    o   No.  New books can be found in the bookstore, and these are available for purchase from the bookstore. 

    • New books do not have any wear-and-tear.

    o   No.  We are only given information about pre-owned books regarding wear-and-tear.  Therefore, we cannot conclude this about new books.

    • No books at the library can be purchased.

    o   Yes.  ‘A person can only purchase books from the bookstore or online.’ This means that books at the library cannot be purchased.

    • Pre-owned books are found at bookstores and online.

    o   No. Whilst pre-owned books can be found in bookstores, we do not know if pre-owned books can be found online.

    • If a book is at the bookstore, it cannot be borrowed.

    o   No.  A person is able to purchase from a bookstore (and in fact, can only purchase books from the bookstore or online), but we do not know if people can borrow books from the bookstore.

    Post Comment

    Some of the songs in Adam’s library are from the rock genre.

    Every song in the rock genre has drums and bass.

    Adam has 6 different genres of music in his library.

    Most of the genres have bass in each song. 

    All of the 6 genres have drums in each song.

    Q23 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not.
    Most of the songs in Adam’s library have bass.
    All of the songs in Adam’s library have drums.
    All rock songs have bass.
    Most of the genres in Adam’s library have both bass and drums.
    Adam listens to 6 different genres of music.
    Yes
    No
    0
    0

    Explanation

    •   Most of the songs in Adam’s library have bass.

    o   No.  Whilst most of the genres have bass, we do not know how many songs of each genre he has.  There could be a non-bass genre which makes up the majority of songs in Adam’s library. 

    •   All of the songs in Adam’s library have drums.

    o   Yes.  6 out of 6 genres in Adam’s library have drums, and each song in each genre has drums.  This conclusion follows.

    •   All rock songs have bass. 

    o   Yes.  We are told that every song in the rock genre has drums and bass (note that the statement ‘Every song in the rock genre has drums and bass’ is not specific to Adam’s library, and therefore is true for this question).

    •   Most of the genres in Adam’s library have both bass and drums.  

    o   Yes.  Most of the genres have bass, and all have drums, therefore most genres will contain both bass and drums. 

    •   Adam listens to 6 different genres of music. 

    o   No.  Whilst there are 6 different genres of music in his library, we are not given any information about what Adam actually listens to.

    Post Comment

    Below is a Venn diagram of holiday destinations in a class of 70 first year university students.

     

    Q24 How many people went to exactly two destinations?
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    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. Add up the number of people in regions where there are two overlapping destinations, but no more.  10 (Vatican City + Italy) + 1 (Italy + Netherlands) + 5 (Switzerland + Netherlands) + 1 (Germany + Netherlands) + 4 (Germany + France) = 21.

    Post Comment

    Nathan, Lionel, Ashwin, Claire, and Gloria are friends that work together.  Each of them brings a pet in to ‘Bring Your Pet to Work’ day.  Every friend owns a different pet (snake, dog, cat, rabbit, hamster) and each got their pet from different places (store, shelter, relative, friend, stray).

    Claire and Lionel got their pets from people they know.

    Ashwin adopted his dog from the shelter.

    The cat was a stray.

    Claire owns the snake.

    Nathan got his pet from the store.

    Q25 What is Nathan’s pet?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.  We are asked to figure out what Nathan’s pet is.  He cannot own the dog (Ashwin adopted the dog), he cannot own the cat (Nathan got his pet from the store and the cat was a stray), and he cannot own the snake (Claire owns the snake).  This means he could either own the hamster or the rabbit, but we do not know which from the given information.

    Post Comment

    Lola, Patrick, and Graham are friends that live in the same building and are on their way to do laundry.  At the laundry room in their building, Lola, Patrick, and Graham each choose their own washer.  There are two shelves of washers, each with washers, as shown.  They can only choose washers that are currently empty.

    Lola cannot reach the top shelf of washers.

    Patrick and Graham’s washers sit atop one another.

    All four of the corner washers are already occupied.

    Lola’s washer is not adjacent to anyone else’s, despite being in the same row as Patrick’s.

    Q26 Which of the following can be the location of Graham’s washer?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.  Washers A, F, G, and L are already occupied. Lola’s washer must be in the lower shelf of washers because she cannot reach the top shelf.  It is not adjacent to G or L, because these are already occupied.  This means Lola’s washer is either I or J.  If Lola’s washer is in I, Patrick’s must be in K (same row, but not adjacent), and Graham’s washer must be E (atop Patrick’s locker).  If Lola’s washer is in J, Patrick’s must be in H (same row, but not adjacent), and Graham’s washer must be B (atop Patrick’s locker).  Since E is not an answer choice, B is the correct answer.

    Post Comment

    Should obese patients at a GP practice be given subsidised gym memberships at their local gym in an attempt to decrease the prevalence of obesity in the area?

    Q27
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A The key information here is whether providing subsidised gym memberships will decrease obesity levels.  B is incorrect because it discusses healthy diets as opposed to subsidised gym memberships and is therefore not relevant enough.  C is incorrect because it discusses cost, which is also not the key information in this question.  D, while a promising argument, does not directly discuss the role of subsidised gym memberships in promoting regular exercise and therefore combatting obesity rates.  A is the best answer, because it discusses why reducing the cost of gym memberships would not be the best option to reduce the incidence of obesity.  

    Post Comment

    Should the government require all restaurants to have some vegan and vegetarian options in order to reduce the consumption of meat?

    Q28
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    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.  The key information in this question is whether having vegan/vegetarian options on menus will reduce meat consumption.  A is incorrect because it does not discuss a reduction in the consumption of meat, which is a key part of the question.  B is incorrect because it focuses on the environmental impact of veganism/vegetarianism, as opposed to it reducing the consumption of meat.  D is incorrect because it is an opinion.  C presents a valid point and discusses the outcomes of vegetarian/vegan menu options on the reduced consumption of meat.

    Post Comment

    A deck of cards contains 52 cards (13 cards of each of the following suits: hearts, diamonds, clubs, spades) and 2 jokers which have no suits. Ming is playing a game with his friend Alexa, and in this game, if a joker is drawn, the next card must be from the hearts suit or the player loses. The first card Ming draws is a joker.

    Q29 Depending only on the next card that is played, does Alexa have a 3/4 chance of winning?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.  Ming has already drawn a joker, so in order to not lose, all he has to do is draw a hearts card.  There are initially 54 cards in the deck including 13 hearts cards.  1 card has been drawn (joker) and it is not a hearts card, leaving 53 cards in the deck with 13 of them being hearts.  This means that the probability of Ming not losing (or drawing a hearts card) is 13/53.  This means that Alexa will have a 40/53 chance of winning, not 3/4.  A and D are not correct because there are 53 remaining cards in the deck, as opposed to 52 – there would be 52 if it were a standard deck of cards and no cards had been drawn yet; there would be 51 if it were a standard deck of cards and one card had been drawn.  In fact, there are 54 cards initially and one has been drawn, so 53 remain.  Both A and D also imply that there are only 12 cards Ming can draw in order to win (there are 13, each of the hearts cards).  B takes into account the first draw as well, but we already know that Ming draws a joker on the first draw, so this probability is equal to one; the only probability needed to calculate for this question is Ming drawing hearts on his next draw.

    Post Comment

    Decision Making Review Screen

    Instructions

    Below is a summary of your answers. You can review your questions in three (3) different ways.

    The buttons in the lower right-hand corner correspond to these choices:

    1. Review all of your questions and answers.
    2. Review questions that are incomplete.
    3. Review questions that are flagged for review. (Click the 'flag' icon to change the flag for review status.)

    You may also click on a question number to link directly to its location in the exam.

    Decision Making Section

    Quantitative Reasoning Practice Subtest Instructions

    In the section of the exam, you will be presented with questions that may refer to charts or graphs containing data. Additional information may also be found within the question itself. Most questions will be shown as sets of four questions each connected to the same data.  There are some questions that standalone and do not share data. Each questions has five answers options. Your task is to choose the best option.

    An onscreen calculator is available to assist you with this section – you can access this by clicking on the button at the top left of the screen.

    It is in your best interest to answer all questions as there is no penalty for guessing. All unanswered questions will be scored as incorrect.

    Click the Next (N) button to proceed.

    Tara wants to get a haircut at her local salon, Best Hair. Best Hair charges on the basis of the level of experience of their hairdressers, and there is a tiered pricing system because of this. Best Hair charges at a higher rate per standard haircut for a senior stylist or partner than for a trainee or assistant, and all prices include VAT and a small profit. The rates for a standard haircut are as follows:

    Partner

    £95

    Senior Stylist

    £80

    Junior Stylist

    £65

    Trainee

    £40

    Assistant

    £25

    Question 1. Tara takes her two daughters, Mary and Rachel, to the salon with her. Tara decides to opt for the haircut from the Senior Stylist. Mary receives a haircut from the trainee, although she decides to get her hair styled too, which increases the cost of the haircut by 15%. Rachel gets a haircut from the Assistant, but since she is under 12 years old, she receives a 30% discount. How much is Tara asked to pay?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    1.Work out how much Mary’s haircut costs:

    40 x 1.15 = 46

    2.Work out how much Rachel’s haircut costs:

    25 x 0.7 = 17.5

    3.Work out the total:

    46 + 17.5 + 80 = £143.50

    Top tip: read the answers carefully as the UCAT answer options will often be very similar.

    Post Comment

    Tara wants to get a haircut at her local salon, Best Hair. Best Hair charges on the basis of the level of experience of their hairdressers, and there is a tiered pricing system because of this. Best Hair charges at a higher rate per hour-long standard haircut for a senior stylist or partner than for a trainee or assistant, and all prices include VAT and a small profit. The rates for a standard haircut are as follows:

    Partner

    £95
    Senior Stylist

    £80

    Junior Stylist

    £65
    Trainee

    £40

    Assistant

    £25

    Question 2. The Partner, Senior Stylist and Trainee go away on a hairdressing conference. They had back-to-back haircuts scheduled for the day, and as a result, Best Hair is ‘losing’ £967.50 it would have otherwise received from haircut fees. For how long were they away from the salon?
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    1

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    1.Work out the hourly rate for all three employees combined.

    95 + 80 + 40 = £215.

    2.Divide the total by the hourly rate to work out the time taken.

    967.5/215 = 4.5 hours.

    Top tip: try and think of the fastest way to attempt a question or any possible shortcuts in UCAT. While trial and error would have worked for this question, it would have taken far longer to work out the answer.

    Post Comment
    Muna Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 28 Jan 2021 00:56:19

    I think there's a problem with this question. The rates given are per standard haircut, nowhere is it stated how long a haircut takes or how many per hour are done. This answer assumes 1 haircut per hour (which is real life doesn't necessarily apply anyway).

    Tara wants to get a haircut at her local salon, Best Hair. Best Hair charges on the basis of the level of experience of their hairdressers, and there is a tiered pricing system because of this. Best Hair charges at a higher rate per standard haircut for a senior stylist or partner than for a trainee or assistant, and all prices include VAT and a small profit. The rates for a standard haircut are as follows:

    Partner

    £95

    Senior Stylist

    £80

    Junior Stylist

    £65

    Trainee

    £40

    Assistant

    £25

    Question 3. The rate for haircuts by all staff includes VAT of 12% added to the base fee, added by the salon. What would the cost of a haircut from the Junior Stylist be (to the nearest pound) if VAT was not applied?
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    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    You need to work out the original value of the haircut. 

    1.Work out the Junior stylist fee without VAT:

    65 x (100/112) = 58.03

    So £58 to the nearest pound.

    Common trap: some candidates confuse these types of questions with a percentage decrease. Incorrectly decreasing the fee by 12% would give option A. Instead, use the multiplier method to tackle percentage change questions.

    Post Comment

    Tara wants to get a haircut at her local salon, Best Hair. Best Hair charges on the basis of the level of experience of their hairdressers, and there is a tiered pricing system because of this. Best Hair charges at a higher rate per standard haircut for a senior stylist or partner than for a trainee or assistant, and all prices include VAT and a small profit. The rates for a standard haircut are as follows:

    Partner

    £95

    Senior Stylist

    £80

    Junior Stylist

    £65

    Trainee

    £40

    Assistant

    £25

    Question 4. An assistant at Best Hair is qualified to cut hair only. In one year, they are expected to meet a quota of 1250 haircuts and receive 65% of their cost as their annual salary. What is the annual salary of an assistant at Best Hair, to the nearest pound?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    1.Work out the income from 1250 haircuts:

    1250 x 25 = 31250

    2.Find 65% of this amount:

    0.65 x 31250 = 20312.5 so

    £20,313 to the nearest pound.

    Common trap: be careful when rounding values- remember to round up when necessary as often the answer options will be close together in value.

    Post Comment

    The village of Horsworth has been hosting a weekly charity bingo for the last 50 years. To enter the bingo, participants must pay £1. 50% of the bingo ticket sales are spent on prizes, 35% on running costs and 15% on the charity.

    The village can be divided up on a geographical basis, and there is a difference in the bingo participation habits between the different areas of the village. The differences can be seen in the table below.

    Part of Horsworth

    Adult population

    Percentage of adults buying at least one ticket weekly (%)

    Average spending on the bingo per adult per week (£)

    North

    800

    40

    8

    East

    740

    25

    9

    South

    300

    60

    6

    West

    660

    35

    10

    Question 5. How many adults in Horsworth take part in the bingo each week?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    1.Work out the number of people in each part of Horsworth:

    North: 0.4 x 800 = 320

    East: 0.25 x 740 = 185

    South: 0.6 x 300 = 180

    West: 0.35 x 660 = 231

    2.Work out the sum of these participants:

    320 + 185 + 180 + 231 = 916 people

    Top tip: make sure to write down the values you work out throughout the QR section on the whiteboard – don’t just try to remember them all!

    Post Comment

    The village of Horsworth has been hosting a weekly charity bingo for the last 50 years. To enter the bingo, participants must pay £1. 50% of the bingo ticket sales are spent on prizes, 35% on running costs and 15% on the charity.

    The village can be divided up on a geographical basis, and there is a difference in the bingo participation habits between the different areas of the village. The differences can be seen in the table below.

    Part of Horsworth

    Adult population

    Percentage of adults buying at least one ticket weekly (%)

    Average spending on the bingo per adult per week (£)

    North

    800

    40

    8

    East

    740

    25

    9

    South

    300

    60

    6

    West

    660

    35

    10

    Question 6. In any given week, what proportion of the total sales comes from the people of East Horsworth?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    1.Work out the sales for each part of Horsworth:

    North: 800 x 0.4 x 8 = 2560

    East: 740 x 0.25 x 9 = 1665

    South: 300 x 0.6 x 6 = 1080

    West: 660 x 0.35 x 10 = 2310

    2.Work out the total revenue:

    2560 + 1665 + 1080 + 2310 = 7615

    3.Calculate the percentage of the sales coming from the people of East Horsworth:

    (1665/7615) x 100 = 21.86

    So 22% to the nearest whole number

    Top tip: remember to look at the keywords when working out proportions. The key word ‘from’ indicates that the value for East Horsworth should be at the top of the fraction.

    Post Comment

    The village of Horsworth has been hosting a weekly charity bingo for the last 50 years. To enter the bingo, participants must pay £1. 50% of the bingo ticket sales are spent on prizes, 35% on running costs and 15% on the charity.

    The village can be divided up on a geographical basis, and there is a difference in the bingo participation habits between the different areas of the village. The differences can be seen in the table below.

    Part of Horsworth

    Adult population

    Percentage of adults buying at least one ticket weekly (%)

    Average spending on the bingo per adult per week (£)

    North

    800

    40

    8

    East

    740

    25

    9

    South

    300

    60

    6

    West

    660

    35

    10

    Question 7. How much do annual West Horton ticket sales contribute to charity?
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    1

    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    1.Work out the weekly income from West Horton:

    660 x 0.35 x 10 = 2310

    2.Work out the proportion of this given to charity:

    2310 x 0.15 = 346.5

    3.Multiply this by the 52 weeks in one year:

    346.5 x 52 = 18018

    Top tip: watch out for distractors. These may be answers that are intermediate values in your working. Calculate your final answer first and then look at all the answer options to avoid silly mistakes.

    Post Comment

    Priya wants to install a circular pond in her garden. She would like a water feature in the middle of the pond; however, she needs to adjust the angle of the four pumps in the water feature so that water is not spilled outside of the pond.

    The pumps can be adjusted in terms of elevation to allow water to travel greater distances. Each pump can deliver 1.2 litres of water every 15 seconds. Water is delivered everywhere within a quadrant set by the distances in the table.

     The table below shows the maximum distance the water travels at each angle.

    Angle

    10°

    12°

    Distance (m)

    0.5

    0.8

    1.1

    1.3

    1.7

    2.2

    3.0

    Assume that π = 3.14.

    Question 8. If all four pumps were used, how many litres of water would be delivered in one hour?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    1.Work out the litres of water delivered by one pump in one hour:

    • x 4 x 60 minutes = 288L

    2.Multiply this by the number of pumps:

    288 x 4 = 1152L

    Top tip: read the question carefully to ensure that you carry out all the steps. Forgetting that there are four pumps would incorrectly lead you to option B.

    Post Comment

    Priya wants to install a circular pond in her garden. She would like a water feature in the middle of the pond; however, she needs to adjust the angle of the four pumps in the water feature so that water is not spilled outside of the pond.

    The pumps can be adjusted in terms of elevation to allow water to travel greater distances. Each pump can deliver 1.2 litres of water every 15 seconds. Water is delivered everywhere within a quadrant set by the distances in the table.

    The table below shows the maximum distance the water can travel at each angle.

    Angle

    10°12°

    Distance (m)

    0.5

    0.81.11.31.72.2

    3.0

    Assume that π = 3.14.

    Question 9. If the circumference of the pond was 11.3m, which angle of pump should Priya select to ensure that the water covers the whole pond?
  • 0
    1

    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    1.Calculate the radius of the pond.

    Circumference = 2πr.

    Therefore, we can find out the radius by calculating circumference/2π.

    11.3/(2 x 3.14) = 1.8.

    2.Deduce which angle of pump is needed:

    At 8°, the pump will only cover 1.7m and we need it to cover at least the area of the whole pond.

    Therefore, we need the pump to be set at 10°.

    Top tip: learn basic formulae such as the area and circumference of a circle, and area and volume of common shapes. These are not provided in the UCAT and may come up, especially in the QR section.

    Post Comment
    Muna Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 28 Jan 2021 01:04:22

    At the top, it is stated that "she needs to adjust the angle of the four pumps in the water feature so that water is not spilled outside of the pond". In this particular question, it is mentioned " which angle of pump should Priya select to ensure that the water covers the whole pond". I interpreted that it should be the maximum angle possible, but it should still fall inside the pond, not outside. The answer would therefore be D and not E.

    Priya wants to install a circular pond in her garden. She would like a water feature in the middle of the pond; however, she needs to adjust the angle of the four pumps in the water feature so that water is not spilled outside of the pond.

    The pumps can be adjusted in terms of elevation to allow water to travel greater distances. Each pump can deliver 1.2 litres of water every 15 seconds. Water is delivered everywhere within a quadrant set by the distances in the table.

     The table below shows the maximum distance the water travels at each angle.

    Angle

    10°

    12°

    Distance (m)

    0.5

    0.8

    1.1

    1.3

    1.7

    2.2

    3.0

    Assume that π = 3.14.

    Question 10. How many times larger would the pond be if Priya needed to install the water feature pumps at 10° rather than 4° to cover the exact area of the pond?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    Remember that at 4° the radius of the water delivered is 1.1m and at 10° the radius is 2.2m.

    1.Work out the area covered by pumps at 4° using the formula area = πr2

    • x 1.1 x 3.14 = 3.7994

    2.Work out the area covered by pumps at 10°: 2.2 x 2.2 x 3.14 = 15.1976

    3.Calculate how many times larger the area is at 10°:

    15.1976/3.7994 = 4

    Timing tip: a shortcut which would make this question easier would be to think about the relationship between the area of two circles. At 10°, the radius is double that at 4°. Since we know the formula for area of a circle is πr2 , and we know that pi is a constant value, we can deduce that the area at 10° will be a factor of 22  or 4 larger.

    Therefore, we need the pump to be set at 10°.

    Top tip: learn basic formulae such as the area and circumference of a circle, and area and volume of common shapes. These are not provided in the UCAT and may come up, especially in the QR section.

    Post Comment

    Priya wants to install a circular pond in her garden. She would like a water feature in the middle of the pond; however, she needs to adjust the angle of the four pumps in the water feature so that water is not spilled outside of the pond.

    The pumps can be adjusted in terms of elevation to allow water to travel greater distances. Each pump can deliver 1.2 litres of water every 15 seconds. Water is delivered everywhere within a quadrant set by the distances in the table.

     The table below shows the maximum distance the water travels at each angle.

    Angle

    10°

    12°

    Distance (m)

    0.5

    0.8

    1.1

    1.3

    1.7

    2.2

    3.0

    Assume that π = 3.14.

    Question 11. At which angle of pump is the distance of water closest to the mean distance?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    Work out the mean distance:

    0.5 + 0.8 + 1.1 + 1.3 + 1.7 + 2.2 + 3.0 = 10.6

    10.6/7 = 1.514 so

    The mean distance is closest in value to the distance at 8°.

    Top tip: try not to round the values until you arrive at the final answer to avoid error. If the distance were rounded to 1.5m, it would be unclear whether the answer was C or D.

     

    Post Comment

    A group of students are discussing their saving habits. They all have savings accounts from different providers, and as such are accumulating various levels of return (gain) between them. They wish to compare the savings schemes, and compile a table, shown below.

    Student

    Investment (£)

    Return (£ p.a)

    Years since opening account

    Patricia

    1,500

    15

    3

    Quinn

    20,000

    160

    1

    Rosie

    15,000

    60

    4

    Sanjay

    7,500

    150

    7

    Tanya

    12,000

    96

    2

    Umar

    9,500

    35

    0

    Victor

    25,000

    38

    5

    Question 12. Tanya invested £12,000 and received a return of £96 per year. What was the ratio of her investment to her return?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    1.Calculate the ratio:

    12000/96 = 125

    Therefore, the ratio of investment to return is 125:1.

    Common trap: it is common in ratio questions to work out the inverse of the ratios they ask you. Always double-check that you have them the right way around.

    Post Comment

    A group of students are discussing their saving habits. They all have savings accounts from different providers, and as such are accumulating various levels of return (gain) between them. They wish to compare the savings schemes, and compile a table, shown below.

    Student

    Investment (£)

    Return (£ p.a)

    Years since opening account

    Patricia

    1,500

    15

    3

    Quinn

    20,000

    160

    1

    Rosie

    15,000

    60

    4

    Sanjay

    7,500

    150

    7

    Tanya

    12,000

    96

    2

    Umar

    9,500

    35

    0

    Victor

    25,000

    38

    5

    Question 13. The mean return for students who made an investment between £2000 and £22,000 was:
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    we need to calculate the mean return (not investment!) for Quinn, Rosie, Sanjay, Tanya and Umar only.

    1.Work out the mean of the returns for these students only:

    160 + 60 + 150 + 96 + 35 = 501.

    501/5 = £100.20.

    Common trap: it is easy to calculate the mean of all seven individuals by default; read the question carefully and ensure that you sum up and divide the values for the five relevant students only.

    Post Comment

    A group of students are discussing their saving habits. They all have savings accounts from different providers, and as such are accumulating various levels of return (gain) between them. They wish to compare the savings schemes, and compile a table, shown below.

    Student

    Investment (£)

    Return (£ p.a)

    Years since opening account

    Patricia

    1,500

    15

    3

    Quinn

    20,000

    160

    1

    Rosie

    15,000

    60

    4

    Sanjay

    7,500

    150

    7

    Tanya

    12,000

    96

    2

    Umar

    9,500

    35

    0

    Victor

    25,000

    38

    5

    Question 14. Victor wants to organise a birthday party for his friend and wishes to decorate the hall with as many £19.10 ‘decoration packages’ as possible. He has not spent any money from his savings account yet, and the return has been constant since opening the account. What is the maximum number of decoration packages that Victor can purchase using his returns (not investment) money alone?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    1.We need to work out how much spending money Victor has from his savings account:

    38 x 5 = £190

    2.Calculate the maximum number of decoration packages Victor can purchase:

    190/19.10 = 9.95

    Therefore, Victor only has enough money to purchase 9 decoration packages.

    Common trap: be careful when rounding up or rounding down values. The key word in this question is ‘maximum’, indicating that although 9.95 rounds up to 10, he only has enough money to buy 9 full packages.

    .

    Post Comment

    A group of students are discussing their saving habits. They all have savings accounts from different providers, and as such are accumulating various levels of return (gain) between them. They wish to compare the savings schemes, and compile a table, shown below.

    Student

    Investment (£)

    Return (£ p.a)

    Years since opening account

    Patricia

    1,500

    15

    3

    Quinn

    20,000

    160

    1

    Rosie

    15,000

    60

    4

    Sanjay

    7,500

    150

    7

    Tanya

    12,000

    96

    2

    Umar

    9,500

    35

    0

    Victor

    25,000

    38

    5

    Question 15. Patricia withdrew £395 from her savings account, having not spent any money so far. The return on her investment has remained constant since she opened up the account. What percentage of her total savings did Patricia withdraw?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    1.Work out Patricia’s total savings:

    1500 + (15 x 3) = 1545

    2.Consider the withdrawal as a percentage of her savings:

    395/1545 x 100 = 25.6%

    Top tip: try to leave rounding to the end of the calculation. Three of the option answers round to 26% and only one is correct!

    Post Comment

    Katie and Mark buy a hot tub for their garden. It is cuboidal and the interior measures 1.1m x 1.1m x 1.4m. They fill the hot tub with water at 12°C. They want to heat the water up to 30°C. It takes 4200 joules (J) to raise the temperature of one litre of water by 1°C.

    1m3 = 1000 litres

    Question 16. What is the volume of water needed to fill the hot tub?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    1.Remember that the hot tub is cuboidal, and calculate the volume:

    1.1 x 1.1 x 1.4 = 1.694m3

    One cubic metre of water is equivalent to 1000L so

    1.694 x 1000 = 1694.

    Top tip: learn basic conversions, for example, converting cubic centimetres/metres to ml/L as the answer options may depend on you knowing the appropriate factors of 10.

    Post Comment

    Katie and Mark buy a hot tub for their garden. It is cuboidal and the interior measures 1.1m x 1.1m x 1.4m. They fill the hot tub with water at 12°C. They want to heat the water up to 30°C. It takes 4200 joules (J) to raise the temperature of one litre of water by 1°C.

    1m3 = 1000 litres

    Question 17. The energy needed to raise the temperature of 100L of water from 12°C to 30°C is:
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    1.Calculate the difference in temperature:

    30 – 12 = 18

    2.Calculate the energy needed in joules:

    18 x 4200 x 100 = 7560000J

    Top tip: don’t worry if you see content that you haven’t revised – knowledge of energy or enthalpy is not needed for the UCAT. Instead, look at the units of the answer options and try to work out the easiest way to arrive at those units using the information you are given. 

     

    Post Comment

    Katie and Mark buy a hot tub for their garden. It is cuboidal and the interior measures 1.1m x 1.1m x 1.4m. They fill the hot tub with water at 12°C. They want to heat the water up to 30°C. It takes 4200 joules (J) to raise the temperature of one litre of water by 1°C.

    1m3 = 1000 litres

    Question 18. The kilocalorie (kcal) is another unit of energy, where one kilocalorie is equal to 4184 joules. The hot tub manages to heat up 1000L of water from 12°C to 24°C, when Katie accidentally slips and spills 800mL of this water. How much energy, in kcal, was wasted heating up the spilled water?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    we can work out the energy wasted in joules first and then convert to kcal.

    1.Work out the temperature difference:

    24 – 12 = 12°C.

    2.Calculate the energy expenditure in joules:

    12 x 0.8 x 4200 = 40320J

    3.Convert this figure into kcal:

    40320/4184 = 9.64kcal.

    Timing tip: the conversion from kcal to J is a simple conversion as it just uses multiples. Try to use shortcuts to save time on these questions if you can. If there is a lot of information, this might be an algebraic equation, for example.

    Post Comment

    Katie and Mark buy a hot tub for their garden. It is cuboidal and the interior measures 1.1m x 1.1m x 1.4m. They fill the hot tub with water at 12°C. They want to heat the water up to 30°C. It takes 4200 joules (J) to raise the temperature of one litre of water by 1°C.

    1m3 = 1000 litres

    Question 19. It takes 4200J to raise the temperature of 1L of water by 1°C. Katie and Mark use the hot tub three times a week. Instead of heating 1000L of water up from 12°C to 30°C, Katie decides that they should heat the water up to 28°C. How much energy do Katie and Mark save over an 8-week period?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    1.Calculate the difference in temperature:

    Although in the question it mentions heating the water from 12°C, this is irrelevant to the answer.

    We just need to know that there is a 2°C difference between 28°C and 30°C.

    2.Calculate the energy taken to heat this water up:

    1000 x 2 x 4200 = 8400000J

    3.Work out the energy difference over an eight-week period:

    8400000 x 3 x 8 = 201600000J

    Timing tip: avoid focusing distractors in the QR section; focus only on what is relevant to what the question is asking. In this question, the fact that water was heated up from 12°C is irrelevant. Ignoring distractors will save time in the UCAT.

    Post Comment

    Some friends go go-karting. Each of the friends is placed on a different elliptical circuit, and each circuit travels around a central flag. The lap time is the time taken for a friend to complete the lap. This information is shown in the table below.

    Name

    Minimum distance from flag (m)

    Maximum distance from flag (m)

    Lap time (seconds)

    Anna

    248

    630

    90

    Bernie

    122

    122

    115

    Clarice

    192

    154

    96

    Daniel

    50

    578

    74

    Elisha

    164

    174

    99

    Question 20. Assuming Bernie’s circuit was circular, with the flag marking the centre of the circle, what is the distance travelled by Bernie in one lap? Take π to be 3.14.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    1.Determine the radius of the circle:

    Since we know that the flag marks the centre of the circle, and the minimum and maximum distances from the flag are both 122m, we can deduce that the radius is also 122m.

    2.Calculate the circumference:

    Using the formula circumference = 2πr, we can calculate the distance travelled.

    2 x 3.14 x 122 = 766.16 so

    766m to the nearest metre.

    Top tip: if the value of numbers such as pi are given, use the values the UCAT provide instead of using the π button on the calculator or entering more digits. This could lead to errors in calculation, especially when there are multiple steps involved.

    Post Comment

    Some friends go go-karting. Each of the friends is placed on a different elliptical circuit, and each circuit travels around a central flag. The lap time is the time taken for a friend to complete the lap. This information is shown in the table below.

    Name

    Minimum distance from flag (m)

    Maximum distance from flag (m)

    Lap time (seconds)

    Anna

    248

    630

    90

    Bernie

    122

    122

    115

    Clarice

    192

    154

    96

    Daniel

    50

    578

    74

    Elisha

    164

    174

    99

    Question 21. What percentage of the time taken for Bernie does it take Daniel to complete one lap?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    1.Work out 74 as a percentage of 115:

    74/115 x 100 = 64.3%

    Top tip: be careful with percentage questions; make sure that the fraction is the right way around. For example, option C would be the correct answer if the question was about how much longer it would take Bernie to complete one lap.

    Post Comment

    Some friends go go-karting. Each of the friends is placed on a different elliptical circuit, and each circuit travels around a central flag. The lap time is the time taken for a friend to complete the lap. This information is shown in the table below.

    Name

    Minimum distance from flag (m)

    Maximum distance from flag (m)

    Lap time (seconds)

    Anna

    248

    630

    90

    Bernie

    122

    122

    115

    Clarice

    192

    154

    96

    Daniel

    50

    578

    74

    Elisha

    164

    174

    99

    Question 22. Clarice and Elisha’s circuits are both 1070m long. What is the difference in average speed between the two?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    1.Look at the answer units.

    The units they are asking for are km/h but the table is in m/s. We therefore need to convert the relevant values to km and h:

    For Clarice: 96s = 96/3600 hours = 0.0267 hours

    For Elisha: 99s = 99/3600 hours = 0.0275 hours

    For both Clarice and Elisha: 1070m = 1.07km

    2.out the average speeds for each person:

    Speed = distance / time

    For Clarice, speed = 1.07/0.0267 = 40.125km/h

    For Elisha, speed = 1.07/0.0275 = 38.909km/h

    3.Work out the difference in speed:

    40.125 – 38.909 = 1.2159

    = 1.22km/h to 3.s.f.

    Timing tip: remember to use the triangle formula for speed, distance, time questions: write this down in shorthand quickly if it helps you to work faster.

    Post Comment

    Some friends go go-karting. Each of the friends is placed on a different elliptical circuit, and each circuit travels around a central flag. The lap time is the time taken for a friend to complete the lap. This information is shown in the table below.

    Name

    Minimum distance from flag (m)

    Maximum distance from flag (m)

    Lap time (seconds)

    Anna

    248

    630

    90

    Bernie

    122

    122

    115

    Clarice

    192

    154

    96

    Daniel

    50

    578

    74

    Elisha

    164

    174

    99

    Question 23. How many laps can Anna complete in the time it takes Bernie to complete one?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    115/90 = 1.27778 so

    Anna can only complete 1.27 laps.

    Top tip: the key word in this question stem is ‘complete’. This means that you should not round up 1.278 to 1.28 as Anna has not yet completed that distance.

    Post Comment

    A cuboid has a width of 4cm, a height of 3cm and a length of 7.5cm. A larger cuboid of the same proportions has a width of 7cm.

     

    Question 24. What is the new height?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    1.Work out the ratio between the widths of the cuboid:

    7/4 = 1.75 so the ratio is 1:1.75.

    2.Multiply this by the original height:

    1.75 x 3 = 5.25cm.

    Common trap: you might be tempted to select the ‘Can’t tell’ option, however, since we know that the new cuboid is of the same proportions, we can deduce the new height using one measurement only.

    Post Comment

    A cuboid has a width of 4cm, a height of 3cm and a length of 7.5cm. A larger cuboid of the same proportions has a width of 7cm.

     

    Question 25. The surface area of the cuboid is 129㎠. The cuboid is cut in half down the diagonal of the largest surface. What is the new total volume of the resulting pieces?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    1.Work out the dimensions of one of the shapes produced.

    If the cuboid is cut down the diagonal of the largest surface, this would produce a triangle on that side with base 7.5cm and height 4cm.

    We know that the area of a triangle = 0.5 x base x height

    So the area of the triangle is:

    0.5 x 4 x 7.5 = 15cm2.

    2.Work out the volume of one of the new shapes:

    The shape produced is a triangular prism, so we can multiply the area of the triangle by the height:

    15 x 3 = 45cm3

    3.Multiply this by the number of shapes:

    There will be two shapes produced so the answer will be:

    45 x 2 = 90cm3.

    Top tip: it might help to draw a small diagram on your whiteboard to help visualise the shapes and exactly which measurements are needed to calculate the surface area.

    Post Comment
    Muna Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 28 Jan 2021 01:15:43

    I missed that the question was "the new total volume", focus on total. Now I actually see the point, and you don't need to do any more than calculate the volume of the initial piece. Becuase the total of any new pieces cut, no matter which way, will always add up to the initial volume of the original piece. Right? :-)

    The table below shows the distances by road between different towns in kilometres.

     

    Anchurch

    Belmouth

    Crahill

    Dunnorth

    Anchurch

    X

    23

    34

    44

    Belmouth

    23

    X

    22

    19

    Crahill

    34

    22

    X

    31

    Dunnorth

    44

    19

    31

    X

    Question 26. Lucy travels from Anchurch to Belmouth and then from Belmouth to Dunnorth. She then returns directly to Anchurch. How many kilometres does Lucy travel?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    1.Sum up the distances between each of the locations:

    23 + 19 + 44 = 86km.

    Post Comment

    The table below shows the distances by road between different towns in kilometres.

     

    Anchurch

    Belmouth

    Crahill

    Dunnorth

    Anchurch

    X

    23

    34

    44

    Belmouth

    23

    X

    22

    19

    Crahill

    34

    22

    X

    31

    Dunnorth

    44

    19

    31

    X

    Question 27. Lucy’s car has a fuel efficiency such that with no traffic, fuel costs are 10p per kilometre and in city traffic, fuel costs are 15p per kilometre. Lucy travels from Crahill to Belmouth and back. 30% of this distance is spent in city traffic. How much did this journey cost Lucy?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    1.Calculate the distance Lucy travelled.

    22 x 2 = 44km.

    2.Calculate the proportion of this spent in traffic:

    0.3 x 44 = 13.2km in traffic

    Therefore, 44-13.2 = 30.8km in no traffic

    3.Calculate the cost of fuel for each part of the journey:

    13.2 x 15 = 198

    30.8 x 10 = 308

    4.Sum up the total fuel cost:

    198 + 308 = 506p or £5.06.

    Top tip: remember to use the multiplier method when dealing with percentages as it is much more efficient. In this example, find 30% of 44km by multiplying by 0.3.

    Timing tip: there is a shortcut for this question which could save time. We know that 30% of the journey is spent in city traffic, where fuel would cost 15p per km. Instead of adding up the sums individually, an alternative method would be to find 30% of 15 and 70% of 10, giving 11.5. From here, you just need to multiply this by 44km to give 506p or £5.06.

    Post Comment

    The table below shows the distances by road between different towns in kilometres.

     

     AnchurchBelmouthCrahillDunnorth
    AnchurchX233444
    Belmouth23X2219
    Crahill3422X31
    Dunnorth441931X

     

    Question 28. Trevor’s car has a fixed fuel cost of 20p per kilometre, regardless of traffic. He makes a return journey which costs him £8.80. Where did Trevor go?
  • 0
    2

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    1.Work out the dimensions of one of the shapes produced.

    If the cuboid is cut down the diagonal of the largest surface, this would produce a triangle on that side with base 7.5cm and height 4cm.

    We know that the area of a triangle = 0.5 x base x height

    So the area of the triangle is:

    0.5 x 4 x 7.5 = 15cm2.

    2.Work out the volume of one of the new shapes:

    The shape produced is a triangular prism, so we can multiply the area of the triangle by the height:

    15 x 3 = 45cm3

    3.Multiply this by the number of shapes:

    There will be two shapes produced so the answer will be:

    45 x 2 = 90cm3.

    Top tip: it might help to draw a small diagram on your whiteboard to help visualise the shapes and exactly which measurements are needed to calculate the surface area.

    Post Comment
    Muna Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 28 Jan 2021 01:18:53

    There's a bug with this question and explanation, and I believe the correct answer is wrong too!

    Thomas works as a waiter. In one particular week, he earned £300. This included tips amounting to 4% of his weekly wage.

    Question 29. What is Thomas’ weekly wage?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    1. It is easiest to devise an algebraic equation to solve this question.

    If w = wage and t = tips, then in this particular week,

    w + t = 300

    t = 0.04w

    1. Therefore, we can substitute t in for 0.04w in the first equation:

    w + 0.04w = 300

    1.04w = 300 so w = £288 to the nearest pound.

    Post Comment

    Max’s garden plan is shown below. He wishes to create a flowerbed surrounding the whole perimeter of the rectangular lawn and wants to plant a variety of flowers.

    Question 30. In a model of Max’s garden, x is equal to 1cm. The shaded border has an area of 25㎠. What is the value of W + L?
  • 0
    5

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    1.We can work this out using an equation:

    WL – (W-2)(L-2) = 25

    WL – (WL – 2L – 2W + 4) = 25

    WL – WL + 2L + 2W – 4 = 25

    2L + 2W = 29

    L + W = 14.5cm

    Top tip: it would be useful to write down these equations on the whiteboard provided. Take extra care when dealing with multiple plus and minus signs, as just one mistake could cost you the answer.

    Post Comment
    GK Medicmind Tutor

    Wed, 09 Sep 2020 11:27:15

    25 not 32

    student Medicmind Tutor

    Sat, 19 Sep 2020 17:24:38

    there's been quite a few questions with errors like this in the calculations or explanations not matching up to answers

    Muna Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 28 Jan 2021 01:21:43

    Yes, I also got very confused since the answer I got (14.5) didn't appear in the answers. As already mentioned the formula should add up to 25 as given in the question and not 32.

    Max’s garden plan is shown below. He wishes to create a flowerbed surrounding the whole perimeter of the rectangular lawn and wants to plant a variety of flowers.

    Question 31. The width (W) of Max’s lawn currently is 8m and the length (L) is 15m. He cannot decide whether to make the width of the flowerbed (x) 0.5m or 0.8m. How much more land would the flowerbed take up if x was 0.8m as opposed to 0.5m?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    1.Find out the area of Max’s lawn currently.

    15 x 8 = 120m2.

    2.Work out the area of the lawn if x = 0.5m

    (15-1) x (8-1) = 14 x 7 = 98m2.

    3.Work out the area of the lawn if x = 0.8m:

    (15-1.6) x (8-1.6) = 13.4 x 6.4 = 85.76m2

    4.Calculate the area of the flowerbed for each value of x:

    At x = 0.5, area of flowerbed = 120 – 98 = 22m2.

    At x = 0.8, area of flowerbed = 120 – 85.76 = 34.24m2.

    5.Calculate the percentage increase at x=0.8 compared to x=0.5:

    34.24/22 = 1.556 so

    At x = 0.8m, the flowerbed is 56% larger.

    Common trap: some candidates will skip step 4 of the working and work out the percentage difference in lawn size. Always ensure that you read the question properly and calculate the percentage difference for the correct variable.

    Post Comment

    Max’s garden plan is shown below. He wishes to create a flowerbed surrounding the whole perimeter of the rectangular lawn and wants to plant a variety of flowers.

    Question 32. Max eventually decides that he wants to plant 200 flowers. To begin with, he decides to fill the flowerbed as much as possible with 40% petunias and 60% pansies. A set of petunias has a circular base with a diameter of 0.3m and a set of pansies has a square base with a side length of 0.4m. What will be the area taken up in the flowerbed by the flower bases? Take π to equal 3.14.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    1.Work out the area of the base of set of petunias:

    Diameter = 0.3m so radius = 0.15m

    Area = πr2 so

    Area = 3.14 x 0.15 x 0.15 = 0.07065m2

    2.Work out the area of the base of a set of pansies:

    Side length = 0.4m so

    Area = 0.4 x 0.4 = 0.16m2.

    3.Work out the relative proportions of each flower:

    0.4 x 0.07065 = 0.02826

    0.02826 x 200 = 5.652

    0.6 x 0.16 = 0.096

    0.096 x 200 = 19.2

    4.Calculate the total:

    5.652 + 19.2 = 24.852

    Timing tip: if you are struggling with a question, a good approach would be to use the ‘flag’ button and reconsider it after attempting the remainder of the questions.

    Post Comment

    The table below shows total tax which should be paid on an annual income. The amount of tax an individual has to pay will depend on their income.

    Annual income ($)

    Tax rate (%)

    Band

    0 – 15,000

    10

    1

    15,000 – 30,000

    15

    2

    30,000-45,000

    20

    3

    45,000-60,000

    25

    4

    60,000 +

    30

    5

     

    For example, if someone earnt $17,000, they would have to pay $1800 in tax, as they would pay 10% of 15000 + 15% of (17000 – 15000).

    Question 33. William earns $26,500 annually. How much income tax does he have to pay annually?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    William will be in Band 2, so will pay 10% of 15000 and 15% of the remaining salary in income tax.

    1.Calculate the tax he has to pay for each part of his salary.

    15000 x 0.1 = 1500

    26500-15000 = 11500

    11500 x 0.15 = 1725

    2.Calculate the sum of these figures:

    1500 + 1725 = $3225

    Common trap: with these tax questions, remember that the banding works by charging different parts of the salary at different percentages of tax. For William, the 15% tax is only charged on the salary exceeding $15,000. A common mistake is to find 15% of 26,500, which would give you option D.

    Post Comment

    The table below shows total tax which should be paid on an annual income. The amount of tax an individual has to pay will depend on their income.

    Annual income ($)

    Tax rate (%)

    Band

    0 – 15,000

    10

    1

    15,000 – 30,000

    15

    2

    30,000-45,000

    20

    3

    45,000-60,000

    25

    4

    60,000 +

    30

    5

     

    For example, if someone earnt $17,000, they would have to pay $1800 in tax, as they would pay 10% of 15000 + 15% of (17000 – 15000).

    Question 34. Jane used to earn $44,000 annually but recently got a promotion and now earns $50,000 per annum. What is the percentage increase in her income tax?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    1.Work out what Jane paid at $44,000:

    Band 1: 0.1 x 15000 = 1500

    Band 2: 0.15 x 15000 = 2250

    Band 3: 0.2 x 14000 = 2800

    1500 + 2250 + 2800 = $6550

    2.Work out what Jane pays now at $50,000:

    Band 1: 1500

    Band 2: 2250

    Band 3: 0.2 x 15000 = 3000

    Band 4: 0.25 x 5000 = 1250

    1500 + 2250 + 3000 + 1250 = $8000

    3.Calculate the percentage increase:

    8000/6550 = 1.22 so a 22% increase.

    Top tip: use the multiplier method when dealing with percentage increases but bear in mind that an answer of 1.22 means that the new value is 122% of the original or a 22% increase, not a 122% increase from the original.

    Post Comment

    The table below shows total tax which should be paid on an annual income. The amount of tax an individual has to pay will depend on their income.

    Annual income ($)

    Tax rate (%)

    Band

    0 – 15,000

    10

    1

    15,000 – 30,000

    15

    2

    30,000-45,000

    20

    3

    45,000-60,000

    25

    4

    60,000 +

    30

    5

     

    For example, if someone earnt $17,000, they would have to pay $1800 in tax, as they would pay 10% of 15000 + 15% of (17000 – 15000).

    Question 35. Brianna earns $4750 a month. If she wanted to save money just to pay income tax, how much money would she have to put aside monthly?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    1.Calculate Brianna’s annual income:

    4750 x 12 = $57,000

    2.Calculate her annual income tax:

    Band 1: 0.1 x 15000 = 1500

    Band 2: 0.15 x 15000 = 2250

    Band 3: 0.2 x 15000 = 3000

    Band 4: 0.25 x 12000 = 3000

    1500 + 2250 + 3000 + 3000 = 9750

    3.Calculate the monthly amount:

    9750/12 = $812.50 monthly

    Post Comment

    The table below shows total tax which should be paid on an annual income. The amount of tax an individual has to pay will depend on their income.

    Annual income ($)

    Tax rate (%)

    Band

    0 – 15,000

    10

    1

    15,000 – 30,000

    15

    2

    30,000-45,000

    20

    3

    45,000-60,000

    25

    4

    60,000 +

    30

    5

     

    For example, if someone earnt $17,000, they would have to pay $1800 in tax, as they would pay 10% of 15000 + 15% of (17000 – 15000).

    Question 36. Fergus pays £8420 in tax every year. What is his annual income before tax is deducted?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    1.Calculate the tax at the top of all the bands:

    Band 1: 0.1 x 15000 = 1500

    Band 2: 0.15 x 15000 = 2250

    Band 3: 0.2 x 15000 = 3000

    Band 4: 0.25 x 15000 = 3750

    Since we can see that the total is likely to be greater than the tax Fergus pays, we can stop here.

    2.Decide which tax band Fergus comes under.

    1500 + 2250 + 3000 = 6750

    1500 + 2250 + 3000 + 3750 = 10500

    Since Fergus’ income tax falls in between these values, we can deduce that he is in Band 4.

    3.Calculate the amount Fergus earns in the 4th band:

    8420-6750 = 1670

    We can derive a formula to work out Fergus’ income.

    0.25x = 1670

    x = 6680

    4.Add this value on to the top of Band 3:

    6680 + 45000 = $51,680

    Top tip: with tax questions, sometimes the UCAT provides a ‘Total Tax’ column, which identifies the maximum tax payable at the top of each bracket. If this is not provided, it may be worth noting down these values on the whiteboard, since they are frequently used.

    Post Comment

    Quantitative Reasoning Review Screen

    Instructions

    Below is a summary of your answers. You can review your questions in three (3) different ways.

    The buttons in the lower right-hand corner correspond to these choices:

    1. Review all of your questions and answers.
    2. Review questions that are incomplete.
    3. Review questions that are flagged for review. (Click the 'flag' icon to change the flag for review status.)

    You may also click on a question number to link directly to its location in the exam.

    Quantitative Reasoning Section

    Abstract Reasoning Practice Subtest Instructions

    There are 4 different question types in this section of the exam.

    For type 1, you will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled “Set A” and “Set B”. You will be given a test shape and asked to decide whether the test shape belongs to Set A, Set B, or Neither.

    For type 2, you will be presented with a series of shapes. You will be asked to select the next shape in series.

    For type 3, you will be presented with a statement, involving a group of shapes. You will be asked to determine which shape completes the statement.

    For type 4, you will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled “Set A” and “Set B”. You will be asked to select which of the four response options belongs to Set A or Set B.

    It is in your best interest to answer all questions as there is no penalty for guessing. All unanswered questions will be scored as incorrect.

    Click the Next (N) button to proceed.

    Question 1.
  • 1
    1

    Explanation

    Pattern:

    Set A: all black shapes will overlap with each other. There are two shapes in each square.

    Set B: all white shapes will overlap with each other. There are three shapes in each square.


    Answer:

    The correct answer is C. A white shape overlaps a black shape, so this belongs to neither set A nor set B.

    Post Comment

    Question 2.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: all black shapes will overlap with each other. There are two shapes in each square.

    Set B: all white shapes will overlap with each other. There are three shapes in each square.

     

    Answer:

    The correct answer is B. Three white shapes overlap each other, so this must belong to set B.

    Post Comment

    Question 3.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: all black shapes will overlap with each other. There are two shapes in each square.

    Set B: all white shapes will overlap with each other. There are three shapes in each square.

     

    Answer:

    The correct answer is A. There are two shapes in this square. Since they are of different colours, they do not overlap.

    Post Comment

    Question 4.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: all black shapes will overlap with each other. There are two shapes in each square.

    Set B: all white shapes will overlap with each other. There are three shapes in each square.

     

    Answer:

    The correct answer is A. There are two black shapes in the square which overlap each other.

    Post Comment

    Question 5.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: all black shapes will overlap with each other. There are two shapes in each square.

    Set B: all white shapes will overlap with each other. There are three shapes in each square.

     

    Answer:

    The correct answer is C. The white shapes overlap, so this cannot belong to set A. There are four shapes in the square, so this cannot belong to set B either.

    Top tip: try to look for relationships between the objects. In this example, the major pattern involves overlapping of the shapes, so keep in mind that positioning of the shapes within the square is important.

    Timing tip: the AR section is tight on time, however, if you spend enough time at the start carefully working out the pattern, the five questions which follow should be relatively easy and you should be able to get through them quickly.

    Common trap: when first looking at the two sets, you might initially notice a pattern in terms of odd and even sides, where set A has mostly odd sided shapes and set B has mostly even sided shapes. However, the five-pointed star in set A and circle in set B disprove this rule. Remember that just one exception to a pattern will mean that it is incorrect and try to look for other patterns instead.

    Post Comment

    Question 6.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern:

    Set A: there is a black shape with an odd number of sides in the top left corner. The total number of sides adds up to 9.

    Set B: there is a black shape with an even number of sides in the bottom right corner. The total number of sides adds up to 10.

     

    Answer:

    The correct answer is A. This square has a black pentagon with five sides in the top left corner, and the additional four sides from the square makes a total of 9 sides.

    Post Comment
    Retard Medicmind Tutor

    Wed, 24 Feb 2021 10:37:24

    The square isn't black, the answer is C fuckwits.

    Question 7.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern:

    Set A: there is a black shape with an odd number of sides in the top left corner. The total number of sides adds up to 9.

    Set B: there is a black shape with an even number of sides in the bottom right corner. The total number of sides adds up to 10.

     

    Answer:

    The correct answer is B. There is a black square with four sides in the bottom right corner, and the two triangles contribute six sides, totalling ten.

     

    Post Comment

    Question 8.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern:

    Set A: there is a black shape with an odd number of sides in the top left corner. The total number of sides adds up to 9.

    Set B: there is a black shape with an even number of sides in the bottom right corner. The total number of sides adds up to 10.

     

    Answer:

    The correct answer is C. Although the number of sides adds up to nine, the circle in the top left corner is not shaded, so this cannot be part of set A.

     

    Post Comment
    theo Medicmind Tutor

    Tue, 01 Sep 2020 22:59:28

    set b box 2 there are 13 sides

    Question 9.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern:

    Set A: there is a black shape with an odd number of sides in the top left corner. The total number of sides adds up to 9.

    Set B: there is a black shape with an even number of sides in the bottom right corner. The total number of sides adds up to 10.

     

    Answer:

    The correct answer is B. There is a black shape with two sides in the bottom right corner, and the total number of sides is 10. Therefore, this belongs to set B.

     

     

    Post Comment

    Question 10.
  • 1
    1

    Explanation

    Pattern:

    Set A: there is a black shape with an odd number of sides in the top left corner. The total number of sides adds up to 9.

    Set B: there is a black shape with an even number of sides in the bottom right corner. The total number of sides adds up to 10.

     

    Answer:

    The correct answer is C. The black triangle is not in the top left corner of the square, and the bottom right corner is empty, it belongs to neither set.

    Top tip: try to think of common patterns, such as number of sides and symmetry, when you first see the sets, and rule each of them out. For example, in this question, symmetry can be ruled out by observation alone.

    Timing tip: if you cannot work out the pattern, flag the questions and guess them, then come back to them at the end of the section. This will allow you to spend enough time on the easier questions and get more marks overall.

    Common trap: some candidates may spend too long fixating on one particular pattern- for example, looking for a pattern in the size of the objects. If you can’t spot one type of pattern, move onto the next type as it may be difficult to rule out. 

     

     

     

    Post Comment

    Question 11.
  • 1
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern:

    Set A: All arrows are aligned vertically. The number of white arrows corresponds with the number of sides of one additional white shape.

    Set B: All arrows are aligned horizontally. The number of black arrows corresponds with the number of sides of one additional black shape.

    Answer:

    The correct answer is C. The arrows are aligned vertically so this cannot belong to set B, however, only one of the arrows is white and the shape has two sides. Therefore, this cannot belong to set A.

     

     

     

    Post Comment

    Question 12.
  • 1
    -1

    Explanation

    Pattern:

    Set A: All arrows are aligned vertically. The number of white arrows corresponds with the number of sides of one additional white shape.

    Set B: All arrows are aligned horizontally. The number of black arrows corresponds with the number of sides of one additional black shape.

    Answer:

    The correct answer is B. The arrows are aligned horizontally, one arrow is shaded and the shape is a single-sided circle, so this belongs to set B.

     

     

     

     

    Post Comment

    Question 13.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern:

    Set A: All arrows are aligned vertically. The number of white arrows corresponds with the number of sides of one additional white shape.

    Set B: All arrows are aligned horizontally. The number of black arrows corresponds with the number of sides of one additional black shape.

    Answer:

    The correct answer is A. The arrows are aligned vertically and all of them are black. There are no white arrows because there is no accompanying white shape. Therefore, this belongs to set A.

     

     

     

     

     

    Post Comment

    Question 14.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern:

    Set A: All arrows are aligned vertically. The number of white arrows corresponds with the number of sides of one additional white shape.

    Set B: All arrows are aligned horizontally. The number of black arrows corresponds with the number of sides of one additional black shape.

    Answer:

    The correct answer is C. The arrows are all aligned in different directions, so this belongs to neither set A nor set B.

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Post Comment

    Question 15.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern:

    Set A: All arrows are aligned vertically. The number of white arrows corresponds with the number of sides of one additional white shape.

    Set B: All arrows are aligned horizontally. The number of black arrows corresponds with the number of sides of one additional black shape.

    Answer:

    The correct answer is B. The arrows are aligned horizontally. There are four black arrows and the additional shape is a four-sided one, so this belongs to set B.

    Top tip: look for similarities between set A and set B. For example, in these sets, the alignment of the arrows and the number of sides on the additional are common between the two sets.

    Timing tip: try not to spend too much time on each set. Set a limit of one minute per set and move on if you cannot get the answer.

    Common trap: do not look at the test shapes before looking at set A or B or try and match the test shapes to similar-looking ones in the set. Always try and spot the pattern first before answering the questions.

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Post Comment

    Question 16.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: There are three shapes in each square. There is a large black shape and a smaller white copy of the same shape.

    Set B: There are four shapes in each square. There is a large white shape and a smaller black copy of the same shape.

     

    Answer:

    The correct answer is A. This square contains a large white arrow and a smaller black arrow. There are four shapes in total, so this belongs to set B

    Post Comment

    Question 17.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: There are three shapes in each square. There is a large black shape and a smaller white copy of the same shape.

    Set B: There are four shapes in each square. There is a large white shape and a smaller black copy of the same shape.

     

    Answer:

    The correct answer is B. This square contains a large white arrow and a smaller black arrow. There are four shapes in total, so this belongs to set B.

    Post Comment

    Question 18.
  • 0
    1

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: There are three shapes in each square. There is a large black shape and a smaller white copy of the same shape.

    Set B: There are four shapes in each square. There is a large white shape and a smaller black copy of the same shape.

     

    Answer:

    The correct answer is C. This square contains four shapes. The larger circle and smaller circle are both black, and the arrows are the same colour and size, so this cannot belong to either set.

    Post Comment

    Question 19.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: There are three shapes in each square. There is a large black shape and a smaller white copy of the same shape.

    Set B: There are four shapes in each square. There is a large white shape and a smaller black copy of the same shape.

     

    Answer:

    The correct answer is C. The two pentagons are the same size and colour, and the two arrows are the same size and colour. Therefore, this cannot belong to either set.

    Post Comment

    Question 20.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: There are three shapes in each square. There is a large black shape and a smaller white copy of the same shape.

    Set B: There are four shapes in each square. There is a large white shape and a smaller black copy of the same shape.

     

    Answer:

    The correct answer is C. Although there is a large black square and smaller white square (characteristic of set A), there are four shapes (characteristic of set B) so this cannot belong to either set.

    Top tip: if you stand back and look at the two sets as a whole, you can see that set B tends to contain more shapes than set A. Beginning with a general observation and inspection is always a good idea.

    Timing tip: work through the possibilities in a systematic manner to eliminate all possible patterns. For example, look at the size first and see whether it is relevant, then move on to colour, and so on.

    Common trap: watch out for distractors. These are shapes which are not really relevant to the pattern. In this example, all the shapes other than the small and large square are random and do not have any significance other than number.

    Post Comment

    Question 21.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: All shapes with a right angle are black. All shapes without a right angle are white. There is exactly one line of symmetry.

    Set B: All shapes with a right angle are white. All shapes without a right angle are black. There are exactly two lines of symmetry: 1 horizontal and 1 vertical line of symmetry.

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is C. This shape has right angles and it Is white, so we would imagine that it belongs in set B. However, there are more than two lines of symmetry, and therefore this belongs to neither set.

    Post Comment

    Question 22.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: All shapes with a right angle are black. All shapes without a right angle are white. There is exactly one line of symmetry.

    Set B: All shapes with a right angle are white. All shapes without a right angle are black. There are exactly two lines of symmetry: 1 horizontal and 1 vertical line of symmetry.

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is A. There are no shapes with right angles, and the two triangles are white. There is one line of symmetry, therefore this belongs to set A.

    Post Comment

    Question 23.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: All shapes with a right angle are black. All shapes without a right angle are white. There is exactly one line of symmetry.

    Set B: All shapes with a right angle are white. All shapes without a right angle are black. There are exactly two lines of symmetry: 1 horizontal and 1 vertical line of symmetry.

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is A. All the shapes have right angles and they are all black. There is only one line of symmetry, so this belongs to set A.

    Post Comment

    Question 24.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: All shapes with a right angle are black. All shapes without a right angle are white. There is exactly one line of symmetry.

    Set B: All shapes with a right angle are white. All shapes without a right angle are black. There are exactly two lines of symmetry: 1 horizontal and 1 vertical line of symmetry.

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is C. The shapes do not have right angles and are shaded white so cannot belong to set B. However, there are two lines of symmetry and therefore this cannot belong to set A.

    Post Comment

    Question 25.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: All shapes with a right angle are black. All shapes without a right angle are white. There is exactly one line of symmetry.

    Set B: All shapes with a right angle are white. All shapes without a right angle are black. There are exactly two lines of symmetry: 1 horizontal and 1 vertical line of symmetry.

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is C. The lines of symmetry are diagonal, but in order to belong to set B they should be horizontal and vertical, so this square does not belong to either set.

    Top tip: remember that for most sets, the pattern in set B will mirror the pattern in set A, or they will at least be linked in some way.

    Timing tip: try and compare similar-looking sets between set A and set B to try and determine the pattern faster by comparing differences.

    Common trap: looking for lines of symmetry does not come up that often in the UCAT, however, it can be easily missed and will cost you marks. Try and determine whether there are lines of symmetry in your initial observation.

    Post Comment

    Question 26.
  • 0
    1

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: there is one large shaded shape. The number of other white shapes corresponds to the number of sides of the shaded shape.

    Set B: there is one white shape. The number of other black shapes corresponds to the number of sides of the white shape plus two.

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is C. This belongs to neither set. The number of sides of the white shape is three, but there are three other shapes, not five, so this cannot belong to set B.

    Post Comment

    Question 27.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: there is one large shaded shape. The number of other white shapes corresponds to the number of sides of the shaded shape.

    Set B: there is one white shape. The number of other black shapes corresponds to the number of sides of the white shape plus two.

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is A. There is one black shape with two sides, and two other white shapes, so this belongs to set A. 

    Post Comment

    Question 28.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: there is one large shaded shape. The number of other white shapes corresponds to the number of sides of the shaded shape.

    Set B: there is one white shape. The number of other black shapes corresponds to the number of sides of the white shape plus two.

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is C. The black shape is smaller than the other white shapes, so cannot belong to set A. As there is more than 1 white shape, it cannot belong to set B either.

    Post Comment

    Question 29.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: there is one large shaded shape. The number of other white shapes corresponds to the number of sides of the shaded shape.

    Set B: there is one white shape. The number of other black shapes corresponds to the number of sides of the white shape plus two.

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is B. There is one white shape with four sides, and six other black shapes, so this belongs to set B.

    Post Comment

    Question 30.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    Set A: there is one large shaded shape. The number of other white shapes corresponds to the number of sides of the shaded shape.

    Set B: there is one white shape. The number of other black shapes corresponds to the number of sides of the white shape plus two.

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is C. There is one white shape with one side. For this to belong to set B, there would need to be three other black shapes, so this belongs to neither set.

    Top tip: always make sure that a pattern is applicable to all the squares within a set. If you spot even one shape that does not fit the rule, this is enough to rule out that pattern as a possibility.

    Timing tip: try and think about how much time you want to spend on each AR question. In general, there are 55 questions to answer over 14 minutes, giving you just over 15 seconds per question. Bear this in mind if a question is beginning to take too long.

    Common trap: in this question, size and position do not matter. If it is unclear whether objects are the same size, for example, you could rule out size as a possible pattern as it will usually be obvious.

     

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    Question 31.
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